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[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sqj74ht6daj964c42&s=sak852haqj854d5c9]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 -     -     -     1

 2    Pass  Pass  2

 3    3    Pass  Pass

 4    Dbl   Pass  Pass

 Pass  

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South gets the blame.

 

North passed 2 and now volunteers to bid 3. This should be a penalty dbl in . Promising a good North hand.

If you don't play that as penalty dbl in , South is still strong enough to bid 4. Which will get North on the right track.

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I'd assign the blame mainly to N. South has clearly shown a lot of strength/shape by bidding 2 going past hearts and not reopening with a double. South can't really know if 3 is a good hand (a penalty X of diamonds) or competitive (nothing much but some spades and a desire to not defend 3 or a desire not to let the opponents find out diamonds is their suit). Then over 4 the X sounds like a penalty to me. The South hand has somewhere between 2.5 and 4 defensive tricks against clubs. If partner wants to defend clubs and has another 1-2 tricks and we don't make 4 what can you do.

 

I think N should have bid 4 not 3 over the 2 call (and over the 4 call too).

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Blame 30% N, 70% S from me.

 

First of all, South's hand is a monster of playing strength opposite even a shaded competitive raise. On the given sequence S has the easiest raise to 4 ever !

I may be resulting the hand, but I think I'd also pull 4x to 4 here, but if S simply bids 4 the first time, these issues don't arise and that is where I assign almost all of his 70% blame.

 

ADDED: South failed to realize the huge offensive nature of his 65er with two good suits. Seriously, had I held the S hand and missclicked a 1 opening and heard a 2 raise from PD, I'd not stop short of game. Had I opened 1 I have an easy reverse over a 1NT response, Had I opened 1 I am splintering over PD's 1 response. With all that in mind, it is really clear that South has a very easy 4 call here on the given auction.

 

Now for North's bidding. North should ask himself what kind of hands South balances with a "reverse" to 2 with ? I'd bet that they aren't 4522 minimums. With that in mind, game is very likely, and while I don't like to hang PD for balancing, I think I'd do something more than 3 here..ie just blast to 4, or bid 3 (yeah yeah, ambiguous Q bid, but has to show quite a good hand for the previous pass and be highly GI) but I only give a bit of N's blame to the cautious 3 call.

 

But what was N's double of 4 based on ? Can N really hold a hand that can raise and also pummel either 4m contract, but not have great play for 4 ?

Quite unlikely.. so perhaps the double is "cooperative" or shows cards. However, as North, on the given bidding I clearly prefer to show may cards by bidding 4 over the opp 4 rather than doubling with two small trump.

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Most North.

He waited for the reopening double and it didn't come.

He had to realise that South has a very good hand unsuitable for defense.

Such good trumps plus an Ace is plenty to bid 4.

 

OTOH South could have bid 4 because a weaker North hand

(e.g. like Qxxx 10x xxx xxxx) already produces game.

In IMP scoring 4 is a good call.

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Had I opened 1 I am splintering over PD's 1 response.

Please clarify, over 1:1 are you spintering in 's or 's ?

 

1:1 4m is a spinter isnt it?

1 opening, 1 by responder 4m by opener is a splinter supporting responder's suit, which is . I'd make the lowest splinter which is 4 as I honestly would want to flash a slam signal noting we have at least 9 and that PD could be more than a min.

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North had a 4S bid and south had a 4S bid. They are both really obvious but I guess south's was more obvious since he had game in his own hand so north 30 % and south 70 %

Hmm I think north's was more obvious. He had a slam try where he didn't bid game, south had a game bid where he didn't bid game.

 

Then again I feel a bit silly even arguing who is more at fault since I agree both are extremely at fault.

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Had I opened 1 I am splintering over PD's 1 response.

Please clarify, over 1:1 are you spintering in 's or 's ?

 

1:1 4m is a spinter isnt it?

1 opening, 1 by responder 4m by opener is a splinter supporting responder's suit, which is . I'd make the lowest splinter which is 4 as I honestly would want to flash a slam signal noting we have at least 9 and that PD could be more than a min.

Ooh, too much party last night.

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Come on, open 1 with +. If LHO knew about some "new" conventions, you might have had to bid spades at the 5 level.

LOL.

 

Jillybean, ignore the bad advice to open 1 with 5 spades and 6 hearts. Your 1 opening was correct.

 

I don't know why people take every opportunity to plug their pet eccentric agreements, but in any case the BIF does not seem the place for it.

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North had a 4S bid and south had a 4S bid. They are both really obvious but I guess south's was more obvious since he had game in his own hand so north 30 % and south 70 %

Hmm I think north's was more obvious. He had a slam try where he didn't bid game, south had a game bid where he didn't bid game.

 

Then again I feel a bit silly even arguing who is more at fault since I agree both are extremely at fault.

I agree with this.

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