Ai Hao Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 In 2/1, what do you use in following biddings: 1x-1y-3x?1x-1nt-3x? Forcing game, forcing one round or just invitation? Any difference between major and minor opening? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 Both are nearly forcing, but neither actually forcing. Only forcing bid on these sequences is a jump shift, but the jump rebid shows a good hand, and should only be passed with a minimum/sub-minimum and no fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dicklont Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 Inviting, non forcing. The jump rebid shows NT values (15)16/17 with a good sixcard. Something like Ax Kxx AQJxxx Kx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 Strongly invitational (as opposed to a plain or a mild invite). Responder can Pass the invite but with an ace he should go on even if the hand overall is nothing more than a minimum response. Any bid responder makes below game after the jump, is forcing to game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 Strongly suggesting game, but NF. I have played 1m - 1x - 3m as asking for 1 1/2 stoppers total outside of my minor, if Responder had this he would bid 3NT or show some other important piece of information. Anyway, this is NF Invitational. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
qwery_hi Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 What is our rebid on something like Ax Kxx KQJTxx AQ when partner responds 1♠ after we open 1♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 What is our rebid on something like Ax Kxx KQJTxx AQ when partner responds 1♠ after we open 1♦. We don't have this problem because this is a 2NT opener... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted January 27, 2009 Report Share Posted January 27, 2009 What is our rebid on something like Ax Kxx KQJTxx AQ when partner responds 1♠ after we open 1♦. Normally, my call would be 2NT (18-19 balanced or short spades). In this case, the hand is so unbelievably strong that I'd just bid 3NT if I hadn't opened it 2NT to start with. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 Dicklont the hand you posted is too strong for 3♦, it would be correct without ♦Q. With hands too strong to rebid 3x, you can reverse or bid 2NT, the one you find more appopiate at the moment. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 Dicklont the hand you posted is too strong for 3♦, it would be correct without ♦Q. Totally disagree. It's not too strong, and would be a 2♦ rebid or 1NT opener without the queen of diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 jdawn?? Are you seeing the same 19 highs I am? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 jdawn?? Are you seeing the same 19 highs I am? LOL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
orlam Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 Dicklont the hand you posted is too strong for 3♦, it would be correct without ♦Q. Totally disagree. It's not too strong, and would be a 2♦ rebid or 1NT opener without the queen of diamonds. Are you saying you would bid 1D-1x-2D with both xx Kxx AJTxxx Kx and Ax Kxx AJTxxx Kx (barring an excentric 1N opening)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 Dicklont the hand you posted is too strong for 3♦, it would be correct without ♦Q. Totally disagree. It's not too strong, and would be a 2♦ rebid or 1NT opener without the queen of diamonds. Are you saying you would bid 1D-1x-2D with both xx Kxx AJTxxx Kx and Ax Kxx AJTxxx Kx (barring an excentric 1N opening)? I didn't say anything about the first hand, and you conveniently threw the ten of diamonds into both hands, and if I would open 1NT then what I would do if I opened 1♦ doesn't particularly matter. So no, I'm not saying that. Are you saying you think Ax Kxx AQJxxx Kx is too good for 1♦-1x-3♦? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
orlam Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 Dicklont the hand you posted is too strong for 3♦, it would be correct without ♦Q. Totally disagree. It's not too strong, and would be a 2♦ rebid or 1NT opener without the queen of diamonds. Are you saying you would bid 1D-1x-2D with both xx Kxx AJTxxx Kx and Ax Kxx AJTxxx Kx (barring an excentric 1N opening)? I didn't say anything about the first hand, and you conveniently threw the ten of diamonds into both hands, and if I would open 1NT then what I would do if I opened 1♦ doesn't particularly matter. So no, I'm not saying that. Are you saying you think Ax Kxx AQJxxx Kx is too good for 1♦-1x-3♦? No this looks like a typical maximum to me, and Ax Kxx AJTxxx Kx like a typical minimum. I feel uncomfortable opening 1N with 6-card minors, and I feel very uncomfortable having a range where you can take away and ace and make the same 1D 1x 2D auction up to my rebid.(I assume you would also open xx Kxx AJTxxx Kx with 1D?) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 The hand I was talking about was Ax Kxx AJxxxx Kx. You keep throwing the ten of diamonds in, it makes a big difference! I would open the hand you gave that's an ace lighter. Ax Kxx AJTxxx Kx I would open 1NT, largely to avoid the rebid problem since it seems in between 2 and 3. But if you force 1♦ on me then I rebid 2. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 28, 2009 Report Share Posted January 28, 2009 The hand I was talking about was Ax Kxx AJxxxx Kx. You keep throwing the ten of diamonds in, it makes a big difference! I would open the hand you gave that's an ace lighter. Ax Kxx AJTxxx Kx I would open 1NT, largely to avoid the rebid problem since it seems in between 2 and 3. But if you force 1♦ on me then I rebid 2. Both of your examples are easy 1NT openers imo, however if a 1NT opening is barred, I would rebid 2♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stegenborg Posted January 29, 2009 Report Share Posted January 29, 2009 What is our rebid on something like Ax Kxx KQJTxx AQ when partner responds 1♠ after we open 1♦. I bid 3NT to show a strong single suited hand with the two last suits stopped.I think this is the standard way to use this bid, but it does not pop up that often. Kristian Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ai Hao Posted January 29, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 29, 2009 The actual hand is: [hv=d=s&v=n&s=sahaxdkqjxxxxcxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] 1d(x)1s-3d? Is it good for the jump rebid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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