InTime Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 North.....East.....South......West1C.........1S.......Pass........PassDble.......Pass....Pass........2HPass.......Pass....3D? The question is:- Is 3D 100% forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 what would you do with a good diamond-spade two suiter otherwise? 3♥? doesn't sound very good to me... F later edit: everyone else is right, I could have bid 2♦ the round before, NF it is. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 It's a very good point to discuss and I don't know that either answer is 'standard'. To me non-forcing makes more sense. One reason is a hand worth forcing and with the shape to be bidding at this point would have been likely to act over 1♠ rather than risk a pass out. My other main reason is that I don't think it's a very good idea to prevent yourself from being able to compete in this spot if you are some shape like 5152. Maybe 2NT would come in handy for such a purpose, but that's the type of thing I don't think I would want to involve myself in here. I am interested to check back later for further discussion on the topic. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Non-forcing. With a strong 5-5 in spades and diamonds, I'd have responded 2♦ over 1♠, anticipating this problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Sounds non-forcing to me. If I wanted to force, I could always bid 3H, or have bid 2D over 1S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Non-forcing. I would have bid 2♦ over 1♠ with a D/S two-suiter and a good hand. The hand in question could be .... ♠ AQ974♥ 82♦ J8732♣ 10 Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Maybe 2NT would come in handy for such a purpose, but that's the type of thing I don't think I would want to involve myself in here. 2NT sounds natural to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edmunte1 Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Non forcing constructive, i would have bid 3♥ otherwise with a forcing hand. Something like QJ108x x AQJxx xx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 I would think it is nonforcing and doesn't even necessarily promise invitational values. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 NF. You can cue if you want to force. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 I voted forcing, but, why didn't I double 2♥? why would I pass 1♠ with less than FG values and a two-suited hand? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 I voted forcing, but, why didn't I double 2♥? why would I pass 1♠ with less than FG values and a two-suited hand? Double would be somewhat penalty oriented. Not something you do with 5152. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 NF. Roland's example is very relevent here. 2NT also sounds Natural. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 NF, because playing this as forcing would make this game too complicated for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mcphee Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 After making a penalty pass of 1S when then next hand bids 2H partners pass of 2H should be F I think, dble penalty , so the hand in balancing postion needs to be able to compete without being punished for previous judgement about playing 1S. It seems more important to me that partnerships discuss how many H dble would show. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Non-forcing. I would have bid 2♦ over 1♠ with a D/S two-suiter and a good hand. The hand in question could be .... ♠AQ974♥82♦J8732♣10 Roland Is this a penalty pass at the one level? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Non-forcing. I would have bid 2♦ over 1♠ with a D/S two-suiter and a good hand. The hand in question could be .... ♠AQ974♥82♦J8732♣10 Roland Is this a penalty pass at the one level? Depends on your defense :rolleyes:. Another possible hand is: ♠ AKT9x♥ xx♦ T98xx♣ x Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted January 20, 2009 Report Share Posted January 20, 2009 Forcing. Ok, I though a lot about it, but after having realized, that South converted the reopening double, ... it wasclear for me, I dont care about a nonforcing 3D.If he wanted to introduce diamonds in a nonforcing way, he could bid 2D instead passing the reopeing double.Since he did not, ... he should shut up. Of course the main issue maybe, that one player believedthe pass over 2H to be forcing, the other nonforcing. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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