InTime Posted January 15, 2009 Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 [hv=d=w&v=b&s=sak52h9753da85ck7]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Playing 2/1 (not actually relevant here). Holding as East the above hand, the bidding:- West.....North.....East.......SouthPass......1H.........1S.........Pass2D.........Pass.......? Will you regard the 2D as forcing or not?Reasoning if possible will also be appreciated.Regards Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 15, 2009 Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 Definitely not forcing by a passed hand, since essentially no natural bid is ever forcing by a passed hand for obvious reasons. If partner were an unpassed hand then there is a clear expert consensus for nonforcing, although not universal. The general idea is when you have overcalled, your priority isn't nearly as much to get to game as it is when you have opened, but much more focused on finding a good spot to play so you can safely interfere as often as possible. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted January 15, 2009 Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 2/1's after a overcall are usually not forcing. Especially by a passed hand. Its inconceivable a maximum 10-11 point hand can force an 8 count to bid. I now bid 3♦. I wouldn't have overcalled on this hand. ♥9xxx and no spade spots are a red flag. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 15, 2009 Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 I play it as NF Constructive. With the given hand, I bid 3♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted January 15, 2009 Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 By a passed hand it is clearly a non-forcing bid, as are all other bids by a passed hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
InTime Posted January 15, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 Thanks for the replies so far. However, I think I have phrased my question incorrectly. Of course the 2D is not forcing. The question should have been asked:-Would you bid on given the above hand or would you pass? Sorry for the inconvenience.I am going to open a new Poll.Regards Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted January 15, 2009 Report Share Posted January 15, 2009 I find it obvious to bid. I choose 2♥, but will put 2NT back to diamonds. By the way, be careful to assume a European expert will take 2♦ by a non-passed hand as non-forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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