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How to respond to 1NT with 5-5 majors ?


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Partner opens 1NT (15-17) in second seat. You have:

 

AQ764

K8542

95

J

 

How do you respond with a competent pick-up partner? With a regular partner?

 

What I did:

Used Stayman, planning to reply 2 (criss-cross) if partner denied a 4-card major. If he then said 2NT denying three spade cards, I would go to 4 knowing that he couldn't have two major doubletons, having to play the hand myself.

 

All of this with a new partner. Fortunately, he replied 2.

 

 

If you're nice I'll post a follow-up question.

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I want to be in game with that hand facing a strong NT. With a regular partner 4 showing 55 in the majors without slam ambitions. Barring that Stayman and over 2M I raise to game , over 2 3 smolen (5S4H) and probably 4H if partner does not raise (passing 3NT is a possibility but I do not think it is a long term winner)
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What Kathryn (Jillybean) says is standard and I don't think it can be misunderstood - however, some partners might not be confident that you have five hearts, so if it goes

 

1NT-2

2-3

3NT

 

you can decide to bid 4 (especially if you are sure that partner can't have two doubletons in the majors, of course).

 

If it goes

1NT-2

2-2

 

most would take it as a weak hand with five hearts and 4-5 spades and would pass unless spades are better than hearts - even with 17 points. So this is not what you should do with this hand.

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How about using Texas Transfers, in which 4 shows this hand.

Yeah that's what I do with Shogi, too, but the question was what to do with an unfamiliar partner, relying only on "standard" treatments, whatever that is.

 

Edited: oops sorry Hanoi, just realized there were two questions, one about a pick-up partner and one about a regular partner.

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Then I'd bid 2 and rebid 4 over 2.

oops splinter :)

 

OK, it will probably work as well.

Speaking of... here's that other question:

 

After 1NT - 2 - 2, somehow I was emboldened by the 5-4 fit and felt that there was less possibility of a misunderstanding so I replied 4. He took control at this point and tried the slam, which went down 1 on bad luck (3-1 trumps and 5-1 hearts).

 

My questions are, is it a common or advisable thing to splinter 1) after a Stayman? 2) after a transfer? 3) More generally, holding the hand with long trumps?

 

Partner held:

 

JT83

AT

AKT4

A32

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How about using Texas Transfers, in which 4 shows this hand.

???

 

I am somewhat confused by this comment.

What auction are we talking about?

 

My understanding is that "Texas Transfers" describes the auction

 

1N - 4 and

1N - 4

 

The use/failure to use of Texas introduces a number of negative inferences which impact the Jacoby structure.

 

I've never heard people refer to

 

1N - 4 = 5-5 in the majors

 

as an integral part of the Texas Transfers.

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There's been a lot of discussion about showing shape, but not all that much about showing strength.

 

One of the problems with 5-5 hands is letting partner know whether you're showing

 

1. an invitational hand

2. GF values

3. Slam invitational values

 

Some NT response structures use

 

3 = 5+ / 5+ in the majaors with invitational values

3 = 5+ / 5+ in the majors with GF values

 

The transfer followed by 3M shows a slam invite. 5-4 patterns with both majors work through Smolen.

 

I've also seen schemes in which GF 5-5 with little / no slam interest work through Smolen.

 

On this hand, you'd anticipate an auction like

 

1N - 2

2 - 3

3N - 4

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I like 2 3 4.

 

Given that partner bid 2 over Stayman, I like 4. What I don't like is partner's response to it.

 

This has always kind of bugged me. Ace out opposite a splinter isn't a terrible holding, but I always felt that it wasn't as clearly helpful as a trash holding. Having those 4 points in the other suits, connecting to other honours, can make things easier.

 

I'm not saying I'd abandon ship with p's hand over 4, but I think I'd bid 4 rather than grabbing the steering wheel.

 

0.02

 

Vuroth (Intermediate)

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There's been a lot of discussion about showing shape, but not all that much about showing strength.

 

One of the problems with 5-5 hands is letting partner know whether you're showing

 

1. an invitational hand

2.  GF values

3.  Slam invitational values

 

Some NT response structures use

 

3 = 5+ / 5+ in the majaors with invitational values

3 = 5+ / 5+ in the majors with GF values

 

The transfer followed by 3M shows a slam invite.  5-4 patterns with both majors work through Smolen.

 

I've also seen schemes in which GF 5-5 with little / no slam interest work through Smolen.

 

On this hand, you'd anticipate an auction like

 

1N - 2

2 - 3

3N - 4

1NT-P-3(majors)-P-

3M(agrees trumps)-P-?

 

Relay = lower stiff/void, max slam interest

R+1 = higher stiff/void, max slam interest

R+2 = lower stiff/void, mild slam interest

R+3 = higher stiff/void, mild slam interest

Game = no slam interest

 

Opener can also bid 4♥/4♠ with no slam interest even if Responder does, or 4♣/4♦ with some other specific hand as agreed.

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With regular partner using heeman:

 

1nt - 2 (transfer 4+)

2 - 2 (4+ INV+)

3 (max) - 3 (retransfer 5+ GF after max)

3 (sets ) - 4 (cue 1st or 2nd bypassing serious 3nt)

4 (cue 1st or 2nd) - 4 (cue 1st or 2nd)

4nt (6 ace RKCB when two suits shown) - 5 ( 2 or 5)

6 - pass

 

At first I thought these methods handled the hands nicely but on reflection I am not so happy. Should the 4 bid be LTTC? Also 6 Ace RKCB really sucks here as Axxx(x) opposite JTxx in trump is possible as asking for queens takes the bidding beyond 5. Ordinary RKCB works much better here. All thoughts appreciated.

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