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2009 and still dont get it


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Or just another partner, a different approach?

 

Dealer: West Vul: None Scoring: IMP T5 432 K93 KT754  

 

West  North East  South

 

 Pass  1    Pass  ?  

 

 

part1.  Playing 2/1, whats your bid?

1nt planning on rebidding 2s over 2c/2d/2h

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1NT is clear.

 

Over a 2 rebid, I would pass. This will be at least a 5-3 fit and rates to play better than 2 most of the time. While partner could have extras, my lousy hand will not make game opposite a hand in the 16-18 range so there is no need for a "courtesy" correction.

 

Over a 2 rebid, 2 seems clear. Note that 2 could be a three-card suit, and will often be a four-card suit, so I expect to do somewhat better on average in 2. If partner rebids something over 2 (natural, extras) I am usually passing although I'd raise 3 to 4 (or pull 3 to 3).

 

Over a 2 rebid it is a tossup between pass and 2. Passing wins when partner has a 5-5, or when partner was going to try for game over my correction and we get to stop low. 2 wins when partner has a 6-4 or when the 5-2 outplays the 4-3 (fairly often unless hearts 3-3).

 

Over a 2 rebid pass is a huge standout.

 

Over a 2NT rebid, I would pass. Game is possible but not really that likely to be good. At vulnerable I try 3NT.

 

Over a 3 rebid I'll try 4. Occasionally partner will have only two or three clubs, but often we have a real fit and 5 could easily be the best game. If partner removes 4 to 4 (showing long spades and quite possibly fewer than four clubs) I will pass.

 

Over 3 I am correcting to 3 (no obvious fit, but may as well give partner space to describe his hand).

 

Over 3 I'm bidding 3NT (both minors stopped).

 

Over 3 I would pass (this shows something like 15+ to 18- and I don't really have game values opposite that even though a "perfect hand" for partner will make game).

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I don't know about any system where I wouldn't respond 1NT, but maybe you can gamble a pass if you feel like it.

PASS, ALERTED, AS SHOWING 2 + SPADES

 

AT MOST 1 QUICK TRICK, 2 TRUMPS

 

FORCING NO TRUMP, FOLLOWED BY 2 SAPDES MEANS 1,5 QUICK TRICKS, 2 TRUMP

 

THE WAY FORCING NO TRUMP WAS INVENTED.

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Dealer: West Vul: None Scoring: IMP T5 432 K93 KT754

 

West North East South

 

 Pass  1    Pass  1NT

 Pass  2    Pass  2

 Pass  4    Pass  Pass

 Pass  

 

Partner said 'only 6hcp no danger to passing, biding 1nt and 2 later shows more'

just different styles I guess.

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Huh?

 

1NT is obvious.

 

The only conceivable question is on the rebid, and only because the scoring is IMP.

 

Had partner rebid 2, then I see merit to a practical pass. The spade 10 is big, though. Pass would not be unreasonable.

 

Had partner rebid 2, and had this promised a 4-card suit, and were partner able to rebid 3 with an intermediate 5-5 or something, then pass has some merit there as well. Otherwise, clear 2.

 

After 2, then 2 seems clear unless (1) Opener could have bid 3 with a 5-5 intermediate hand and (2) you are playing Reverse Flannery, and then only if the Reverse Flannery was not a mini. If the RF range were, say, intermediate, such that 1...2 is a very weak sequence, then pass makes sense.

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Hi Ken,

I was hoping to pass a 2 rebid but thought 2 was ok,

we werent playing reverse flannery or any rexford type add-ons. :)

 

here is the full hand;

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=sakq964ht965dq4ca&s=st5h432dk93ckt754]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

 

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In looking at both hands, bidding a hopeless 4 at IMPs is sound bridge.

 

Responder has a good cause to rebid 2.

 

Opener has a good cause to blast 4 and hope for the best.

 

The defense has a good reason to expect a push on the board.

 

Opener has no good cause to blame a normal result on partner.

 

It doesn't take much tweaking of your hand possibilities to make 4 makeable. Heck, with a diamond lead and no heart switch, you could even make 4 on this layout. I could imagine J-duck-duck-Queen in diamonds, club Ace, spade to 10, club King, hearts 3-3. A mistake, but IMP's are made on mistakes when the possible legit layout is not there.

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Dealer: West Vul: None Scoring: IMP T5 432 K93 KT754  

 

West  North East  South

 

 Pass  1    Pass  1NT

 Pass  2    Pass  2

 Pass  4    Pass  Pass

 Pass  

 

Partner said 'only 6hcp no danger to passing, biding 1nt and 2 later shows more'

just different styles I guess.

No, ... just nonsense, I used a word with bull in it, but deleted it,

because you seemed to be sensible, if it comes to language, this

was at least 2008 the case, maybe tis changed 2009?

 

Back to the topic:

What are you supposed to bid with 54 in the minors and 22 in the

majors? Make a direct raise? Pass and play in a 4-2 fit?

And you can make it 55 in the minor, if the above scenario

does not convince you.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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Dealer: West Vul: None Scoring: IMP T5 432 K93 KT754

 

West North East South

 

 Pass  1    Pass  1NT

 Pass  2    Pass  2

 Pass  4    Pass  Pass

 Pass  

 

Partner said 'only 6hcp no danger to passing, biding 1nt and 2 later shows more'

just different styles I guess.

there are many who play that way jillybean

 

OTOH, they will always bid forcing no trump with a void or singleton in partner's suit, and opener has a chance to rebid 2 spades if he feels like playing it opposite a void,

 

the pass guarantees a 7-trump fit

 

many good results playing this way in matchpoints

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jilly, pard's comment was just a ready-made excuse for his unsucessful flyer :)

why was it unsucessful, when he could pass?

 

Here's is a quote from the following respected site-- and you can find similar things in books:

 

http://www.bridgehands.com/Conventions/Two...rcing%20Notrump

 

In the section about forcing no trump

 

When partner opens 1S, the responder has a limited number of options which we respond in this sequence:

 

1. Pass, with less than a good 5 or 6 point hand

 

2. Raise opener’s Spade suit, with 3+ in opener’s major

 

3. Bid a new suit at the 2 level or higher. If responder’s bid is at the 2 level,

the 2/1 response is game forcing.

 

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