H_KARLUK Posted December 30, 2008 Report Share Posted December 30, 2008 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=s7hqj93dakj5ckt42]133|100|Scoring: IMPP P 1♣Whatever you call North passes and your partner bids 1♠. What's your rebid and why?[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted December 30, 2008 Report Share Posted December 30, 2008 Hmm. I would pass 1♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted December 30, 2008 Report Share Posted December 30, 2008 I pass 1♣ as well (I wonder why that's not a poll option.) Usually I will get to double spades on the next round. When partner balances with 1♠ I'll try 2NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted December 30, 2008 Report Share Posted December 30, 2008 Hi, I would have passed. Assuming I dont find a Pass card, some claim,that happens more often, I would go with 1D. Over 1S from p, I can bid 1NT, which showesmy hand pretty well. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted December 30, 2008 Report Share Posted December 30, 2008 After 1♣ pp 1♠ it is 1NT or 2NT. With my regular partner, I would bid 1NT, since we open 1♠ light in a precision context. Playing standard I would let partner's opening style decide. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 I'll try one d, pass is close.Now I will rebid 2nt over partner's free bid of one spade over my 1d bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 If I read this right, I might try 1♦ over 1♣, and then 1NT over pard's 1♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
brianshark Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 Pass then 2NT shows a ~14 count with short spades and stoppers. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 agree with Nuno. To brian: Do you mean 2NT can't have 2 spades? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
brianshark Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 It can have 2. Sorry, by short I mean not 3+ card support. Bad choice of words. :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 pass is kibd of obvious to me and now I cannot bid 2 NT with my regular partner, because this would be a spade raise. So I go with 2 Club followed by 2 NT to show this hand.With a pick up, I pass and bid 2 NT later.In a "you must bid anytime you have 12+ HCPs tourney," I had invent a 1 Diamond call. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 I'm a passer here Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 I pass 1♣ as well (I wonder why that's not a poll option.) Usually I will get to double spades on the next round. When partner balances with 1♠ I'll try 2NT. me 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 I pass 1♣ as well (I wonder why that's not a poll option.) Usually I will get to double spades on the next round. When partner balances with 1♠ I'll try 2NT. me 2 me 3 As to why: despite the misfit, we have strong positional values, and, absent an unlikely spade lead, if partner can raise to game, we will be able to play the hand almost double-dummy. RHO is not only subject to finesses, but also very vulnerable to end-game positions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=s7hqj93dakj5ckt42]133|100|Scoring: IMPP P 1♣Whatever you call North passes and your partner bids 1♠. What's your rebid and why?[/hv]IMO Over RHO's 1♣, 1♦ = 10, _P = 9, 1♥ = 5. After partner's 1♠, 1N = 10, _P = 6 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 Pass(With my regular partner I play that 1NT here shows H and D and I would bid that...This method is giving a solution for all hands that are difficult to bid otherwise....but it probably gives issues for all hands that are easy otherwise :) ) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 I'm getting in the lead director while I can do so cheaply - 1D. I will bid 1N over 1S. If I pass the auction can easily be at 2S or even 3S next time it back to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 I'm getting in the lead director while I can do so cheaply - 1D. I will bid 1N over 1S. If I pass the auction can easily be at 2S or even 3S next time it back to me. I want it to be at 2♠ when it comes back to me so I can double. That is the ideal situation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 I'm getting in the lead director while I can do so cheaply - 1D. I will bid 1N over 1S. If I pass the auction can easily be at 2S or even 3S next time it back to me. I want it to be at 2♠ when it comes back to me so I can double. That is the ideal situation. I have a problem grasping your internal logic - in another thread you wanted to keep the bidding open because the advantage to limited openings is in competition and disrupting the opponents, yet now in another thread you sit and wait until the 3-level, after the opponents have demonstrated their hands strengths and fits, to get involved. Is this kind of like Alice in Wonderland - a word (in this case idea) means just what I say it means and no more? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 You do seem to have trouble grasping the logic. :) But you clearly misunderstood my point in the other thread. In particular I was saying, it is NOT the advantage of limited openings that you get to pass the opening bid on stronger hands than in standard. Even if Shenken said it was. The advantage I referred to had nothing to do with the auction given in the problem, which was exactly my point. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted January 1, 2009 Report Share Posted January 1, 2009 You do seem to have trouble grasping the logic. ;) But you clearly misunderstood my point in the other thread. In particular I was saying, it is NOT the advantage of limited openings that you get to pass the opening bid on stronger hands than in standard. Even if Shenken said it was. The advantage I referred to had nothing to do with the auction given in the problem, which was exactly my point. You had a point? :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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