Califdude Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 Assume partner opens 1NT 15-17 and opponent passes. 1. What is your minimum point count to allow a stayman 2C? 2. Holding a 5-card suit, do you play that a transfer bid requires a minimum point count? thanks for replies. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
vuroth Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 As an intermediate: 1. Invitational values. Optionally, garbage stayman may be used.2. Nope. I'd be happy to transfer with a distributional 0 count, if trump offered better chances to go plus than 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 1. 02. 0 On question 1: Let's assume that partner open's 1NT and you hold something like the following ♠ xxxx♥ xxxx♦ xxxxx♣ Void Stayman seems obvious. Worst case scenario: Partner holds a 3=3=2=5 and you land in a 7 card fit. However, its MUCH more likely that you've corrected into an eight card fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eros2 Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 Any hand where I do not mind passing 2D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 Any hand where I do not mind passing 2D. ... or can correct to a non-forcing non-constructive 2Major. (and in some partnerships 3minor after having bid Stayman might show a weak hand.) Otherwise exactly what Richard said. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 #1 inv. strength, i.e. 8HCP. Obviously I dont play weak stayman, it is not really needed playing a strong NT. #2 0 With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 00 Richard explained it perfectly, even without typos! B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 00 Richard explained it perfectly, even without typos! B) Sure, ... assuming your responses to the 2C inquiryare only 2D,2H and 2S. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 1. 02. 0 On question 1: Let's assume that partner open's 1NT and you hold something like the following ♠ xxxx♥ xxxx♦ xxxxx♣ Void Stayman seems obvious. Worst case scenario: Partner holds a 3=3=2=5 and you land in a 7 card fit. However, its MUCH more likely that you've corrected into an eight card fit. I completely agree... Especially if you are playing garbage stayman. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 00 Richard explained it perfectly, even without typos! ;) Sure, ... assuming your responses to the 2C inquiryare only 2D,2H and 2S. With kind regardsMarlowe Even playing as I do, that partner can rebid 3 of a major with a max and a 5 card major in response to stayman, I think it's right to use stayman. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted December 21, 2008 Report Share Posted December 21, 2008 00 Richard explained it perfectly, even without typos! ;) Sure, ... assuming your responses to the 2C inquiryare only 2D,2H and 2S. With kind regardsMarlowe Even playing as I do, that partner can rebid 3 of a major with a max and a 5 card major in response to stayman, I think it's right to use stayman. Playing Stayman with 0 points has its adv. The given hand is an example. There are of course also disadv., or lets say, playing that Stayman promises at least inv. values has also adv.If the oppoenets intervene, it is easier to catch them.And if you play that the Stayman bid promises values,than you have to pass with the 3-suited 0 count, by theway, a very frequent hand type. You may believe, that the adv. are greater than the disadv., but lets at least agree, that the coin has twosides. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted December 22, 2008 Report Share Posted December 22, 2008 00 Richard explained it perfectly, even without typos! :) Sure, ... assuming your responses to the 2C inquiryare only 2D,2H and 2S. With kind regardsMarlowe Even playing as I do, that partner can rebid 3 of a major with a max and a 5 card major in response to stayman, I think it's right to use stayman. Playing Stayman with 0 points has its adv. The given hand is an example. There are of course also disadv., or lets say, playing that Stayman promises at least inv. values has also adv.If the oppoenets intervene, it is easier to catch them.And if you play that the Stayman bid promises values,than you have to pass with the 3-suited 0 count, by theway, a very frequent hand type. You may believe, that the adv. are greater than the disadv., but lets at least agree, that the coin has twosides. With kind regardsMarlowe Of course there are advantages and disadvantages. There are those for every agreement. I was disagreeing with the proposition that you should only bid stayman on the example hand if the only possible rebids were 2♦, 2♥, or 2♠. I still disagree with that statement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted December 22, 2008 Report Share Posted December 22, 2008 Assume partner opens 1NT 15-17 and opponent passes. 1. What is your minimum point count to allow a stayman 2C? 2. Holding a 5-card suit, do you play that a transfer bid requires a minimum point count? thanks for replies. Everyone agrees that the answer to your second question is zero. As you have seen, there are two schools of thought to the first:1. Using Stayman guarantees invitational values (maybe 7+ HCP)2. Using Stayman promises nothing. It's important to know which you are playing, and it's simply a matter of partnership agreement (although any other agreement than the two possibilities above is extremely rare). You can "agree" that 2C promises invitiational values, then pass the 2D response without going too far wrong, holding e.g. xxx xxxx xxxxxx -. However, it then affects whether the auction 1NT - 2C - 2D - 2H isi) a very weak hand with 4-4 or 4-5 in the majors ("garbage stayman")orii) some form of invitational hand and this is where misunderstandings can arise. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted December 22, 2008 Report Share Posted December 22, 2008 <snip>Of course there are advantages and disadvantages. There are those for every agreement. I was disagreeing with the proposition that you should only bid stayman on the example hand if the only possible rebids were 2♦, 2♥, or 2♠. I still disagree with that statement. I agree, and you are right, sry. I made a claim, and you gave a valid counter example.And in my reaction I discussed something else, it may be,that I have already posted to much on the forum.. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts