Quarky Posted November 21, 2008 Report Share Posted November 21, 2008 All vuln, you open 1nt with ♠ Q2♥ KQ76♦ AJ6♣ K965 Opps are passing. Your pard responds 2nt, transfer to ♦ Assuming that you play 3♣ as pre-accept without any other discussion, do you bid 3♣ or 3♦ in response? I thought pre-accepts are specifically showing a good fit for the transferred minor, not the quality of the rest of the hand (as opposed to major transfer SUPER accepts, which are generally not only on a 4card fit but also a max hand). So with AJx support I would bid 3♣ preaccept. It appears that I'm wrong, can you comment? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted November 21, 2008 Report Share Posted November 21, 2008 I reject on this hand. My simple rule is I need a hand where I would accept an invitation in the minor suit, so if partner bids 3♦ natural invitational and I would pass (as I certainly would on this hand) then I don't preaccept. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted November 21, 2008 Report Share Posted November 21, 2008 I preaccept. In my partnerships, the rule is that you preaccept whenever you have a top honor in partner's suit. This one is easy. Partner may have a reasonable hand for his transfer. He needs to know if his 6 or 7 card suit is producing tricks. If he has KQxxxx and out he will not bid a game. But if he has more, such as a spade honor in addition to his good diamonds, he will bid on if he knows you have the ♦A. On occasion, you might get to 3NT off the spade suit by preaccepting on this hand. But they still have to take their tricks before you take yours. By the way, it is my experience that most better players have changed over to bidding the suit with a preacceptance and making the intervening call without the preacceptance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted November 21, 2008 Report Share Posted November 21, 2008 3♦, reject. My rule for accepting a minor suit transfer is that opener needs Aces and Kings, as well as a fitting honor in partner's suit. With only slow cards outside, opener just bids partner's minor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted November 21, 2008 Report Share Posted November 21, 2008 Agree with Josh and 655321, especially the point about quick tricks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 22, 2008 Report Share Posted November 22, 2008 I like to reject with this as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted November 22, 2008 Report Share Posted November 22, 2008 In fact, I would define my pre-accept as exactly saying "I want to be in game if partner has HHxxxx in his suit and nothing else." So this would be a hand like: ♠J98x♥AKx♦Kxx♣Axx After a diamond transfer I can count nine top tricks if partner has ♦AQxxxx. If partner has Art's hand (six diamonds to two top honors and an outside card) that leaves partner with something like 8-9 hcp and a six-card suit. That's a game force opposite a strong 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted November 22, 2008 Report Share Posted November 22, 2008 I like the agreement to preaccept with Axx, Kxx, or better, with the quality of support being the only facto in the decision. My pre-accept would be to "bid the suit" if preaccepting and "bid in the slot" to deny good support. Not going to dilute the thread and argue the advantages/disadvantages. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted November 22, 2008 Report Share Posted November 22, 2008 Easy reject. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Infidel Posted November 22, 2008 Report Share Posted November 22, 2008 By the way, it is my experience that most better players have changed over to bidding the suit with a preacceptance and making the intervening call without the preacceptance. Can someone please make the case for this? I've seen it both ways, and can't really convince myself either way is clearly superior. Seems either way gains with one responder hand, loses with another, but it's hard to see which "wrong" way is less damaging. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 22, 2008 Report Share Posted November 22, 2008 With Arend we play 3C is the worse hand for diamonds. We also bid 2NT with a weak hand that has both minors and then we pass 3C. Don't see any other reasons to do one way or the other. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edmunte1 Posted November 23, 2008 Report Share Posted November 23, 2008 Reject, completely agree with Adam's post. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted November 23, 2008 Report Share Posted November 23, 2008 This question is impossible to answer without knowing the rest of your responses to 1NT. For example some people play transfers, but also play that a 3m response shows 2 of the top 3 invit to 3NT. If that is the case then this hand is a clear accept. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted November 25, 2008 Report Share Posted November 25, 2008 This question is impossible to answer without knowing the rest of your responses to 1NT. For example some people play transfers, but also play that a 3m response shows 2 of the top 3 invit to 3NT. If that is the case then this hand is a clear accept. And lose 2 A and 4/5S ? partner will bid 3Nt with KQ 6th and K of S. He will bid staymna with 4S. So unless partner Jxx of S + (spades are 4/4 or you get a non S lead) game will not make. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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