OleBerg Posted November 26, 2008 Author Report Share Posted November 26, 2008 In a cuebidding sequence (in my partnerships, anyway), both sides are in a cooperative mode; they're mutually exchanging information until someone knows enough to set the contract or at least give up on more, at least from his view. In contrast, when someone bids keycard either earlier in an auction or by breaking off a cuebidding exchange, that partner is taking the lead role and essentially putting himself in the best position to judge what's going on, if he's given information (or in other words, he's assuming captaincy). Partner's either asking or telling about spades in an effort to get to something above and beyond 6♦; per the fact that he's assumed control by bidding RKC, he should be asking. My spades are worthless, so I'm bidding 6♦.This may be true when you are headed for a small slam. When a grand is your aim, this changes things somehow. When the bidding approaches 4nt, somebody has to ask for aces, to make sure they are all there. So on the actual hand; even though partner wanted to be in the cooperative mode, he had to ask for aces, as it would obviously be far from certain that we would do it, if he didn't. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted November 26, 2008 Report Share Posted November 26, 2008 So on the actual hand; even though partner wanted to be in the cooperative mode, he had to ask for aces, as it would obviously be far from certain that we would do it, if he didn't. Why couldn't partner just cuebid 4♠, then we bid 5♣, he bids 5♥, we bid 6♣? I don't understand why you feel he had to stop cuebidding, and instead bid keycard when his follow up was totally unclear. It sounds like you want 5♠ to mean "go back to cuebidding now", which just doesn't make sense after he chose to stop doing so. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted November 26, 2008 Author Report Share Posted November 26, 2008 So on the actual hand; even though partner wanted to be in the cooperative mode, he had to ask for aces, as it would obviously be far from certain that we would do it, if he didn't. Why couldn't partner just cuebid 4♠, then we bid 5♣, he bids 5♥, we bid 6♣? I don't understand why you feel he had to stop cuebidding, and instead bid keycard when his follow up was totally unclear. And during all those bids, it would be quite clear that we held all the aces? And the given hand would have the stamina for three cuebids on a 10 count opener with only one ace? It sounds like you want 5♠ to mean "go back to cuebidding now", which just doesn't make sense after he chose to stop doing so.Well, more like "going back to cooperative mode". This is what both players were in agreement about. I think it makes quite some sense. Some of the arguments for this is in my reply to Lobowolf, but I may add, that it seems quite awkward to me, to define the continuation as some specific kind of asking bids, when so few bids are available. For instance there is not enuogh steps for a specific king ask. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted November 26, 2008 Report Share Posted November 26, 2008 So on the actual hand; even though partner wanted to be in the cooperative mode, he had to ask for aces, as it would obviously be far from certain that we would do it, if he didn't. Why couldn't partner just cuebid 4♠, then we bid 5♣, he bids 5♥, we bid 6♣? I don't understand why you feel he had to stop cuebidding, and instead bid keycard when his follow up was totally unclear. It sounds like you want 5♠ to mean "go back to cuebidding now", which just doesn't make sense after he chose to stop doing so. I also don't get why we couldn't have just kept cue-bidding. Partner already knows we have a 6-card club suit. If he has solid diamonds, the major suit aces and a doubleton club he can also work out how the play will go in 7D. As others have said, I don't really care what 5S meant, I have a sub-minimum unsuitable opening bid and I sign off in 6D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted November 26, 2008 Author Report Share Posted November 26, 2008 So on the actual hand; even though partner wanted to be in the cooperative mode, he had to ask for aces, as it would obviously be far from certain that we would do it, if he didn't. Why couldn't partner just cuebid 4♠, then we bid 5♣, he bids 5♥, we bid 6♣? I don't understand why you feel he had to stop cuebidding, and instead bid keycard when his follow up was totally unclear. It sounds like you want 5♠ to mean "go back to cuebidding now", which just doesn't make sense after he chose to stop doing so. I also don't get why we couldn't have just kept cue-bidding. Partner already knows we have a 6-card club suit. If he has solid diamonds, the major suit aces and a doubleton club he can also work out how the play will go in 7D. This may be redundant, but is it really obvious for the 10-count opener with one ace, to keep on cuebidding? If it is, does partner promise 4 aces with his 5♥-bid? As others have said, I don't really care what 5S meant, I have a sub-minimum unsuitable opening bid and I sign off in 6D. Well this was actually the point I was trying to make. Our hand is hardly worth an opening, and we have already cuebid in 4♥. But, as partner discloses information about his hand, which he does, our hands suitabilety for a grand improves immensely. It is much better than say: ♠ Q1098♥ KQ2♦ 5♣ AJ1098 In the sequence we should be able to diagnose, that all partner needs is a source of tricks. And our club suit might be that source. Like earlier noted, with AKQxx of clubs 7♦ is obvious, so 6♣ should be something like this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted November 26, 2008 Report Share Posted November 26, 2008 Well this was actually the point I was trying to make. Our hand is hardly worth an opening, and we have already cuebid in 4♥. But, as partner discloses information about his hand, which he does, our hands suitabilety for a grand improves immensely. It is much better than say: ♠ Q1098♥ KQ2♦ 5♣ AJ1098 In the sequence we should be able to diagnose, that all partner needs is a source of tricks. we can't have this hand, it's not a 3C bid over 2D. but we seem to be having the same discussion again. if all partner wanted to make grand slam was the AK of clubs, he shouldn't have diverted himself into blackwood unless he had some way of making a specific king ask. This may be redundant, but is it really obvious for the 10-count opener with one ace, to keep on cuebidding? Assuming that 4D set trumps, and that we play mixed controls (first or second round) then yes, 4D should demand that we keep cue bidding until partner gives up. If it is, does partner promise 4 aces with his 5♥-bid?Of course he does, he's gone past 6D how can we have an ace missing? Unless you think that your 5C bid didn't necessarily show the ace of clubs (which I disagree with, even playing italian type cue bidding). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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