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[hv=d=e&v=n&n=sqt974haq86dk94ca&s=skj6h9dat852ck864]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 -     -     1    1

 Pass  1    2    Pass

 Pass  2    Pass  2

 Pass  3    Pass  Pass

 Pass  

 

How would you have bid this?

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South shouldn't pass 3. North has shown a good hand, and you have a double fit. Your holding is not so great opposite a singleton, but it's still the King behind the bidder, so it's not so bad; and assuming partner has the expected small singleton, he should have another high honor somewhere else for the values of hid bid.

 

So after 3 South can bid 4.

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The really simple answer is that south should raise 1 to 2, and then north can just bid game without dilly dallying. Anything else is an added complication which leaves south trying to catch up later, when as usual the auction is much simpler and more accurate if you raise partner when you can :)
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bid 4 spades with utter confidence--pard shows 5-4-3-x

pard may then try asking for aces south is worried re the club factor,and north worried with quality of the spades-a difficult slam to bid--where is east getting his bid from,at most 12 points,with a 6 card suit,so spades may be with west

regards

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The really simple answer is that south should raise 1 to 2, and then north can just bid game without dilly dallying.

I realize this is expert standard (raising with 3 cards and a side singleton), but is this the right approach for B/I? I'm personally trying it, and trying to be open minded. That said, I wonder should everyone be doing this?

 

I think I agree with not passing 3. It's a bit murky for me, but we agreed on spades as trump, right? Any bid off-suit is a game try, right?

 

I think everything else is ok, unless north has something better than 3?

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The really simple answer is that south should raise 1 to 2, and then north can just bid game without dilly dallying.

I realize this is expert standard (raising with 3 cards and a side singleton), but is this the right approach for B/I? I'm personally trying it, and trying to be open minded. That said, I wonder should everyone be doing this?

 

I think I agree with not passing 3. It's a bit murky for me, but we agreed on spades as trump, right? Any bid off-suit is a game try, right?

 

I think everything else is ok, unless north has something better than 3?

I strongly feel it's the right bid for all levels of bridge.

 

Even having not raised, surely south should jump to 3 over 2, his hand is amazing for having passed a round earlier.

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The only good bid south made in this auction was his overcall of 1. South has an automatic raise of the 1 advance with his 11 HCP good 3 card support and good controls and a stiff. Why didn't South raise ? Does he think North is advancing 1 on a junkie 4 card suit ?

 

After 2 South should jump to 3 as N clearly has a goodish hand with 5 and South has a monster for his previous pass. The 2 bid sounds like a weak preference perhaps with only 2 card support.

 

After 3 South needs to wake up and realize that N is looking for game and bid 4.

 

This hand is simply as Josh says..rather than his awful pass after 2 if South properly supports with support, North just bids game.

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The really simple answer is that south should raise 1 to 2, and then north can just bid game without dilly dallying.

I realize this is expert standard (raising with 3 cards and a side singleton), but is this the right approach for B/I? I'm personally trying it, and trying to be open minded. That said, I wonder should everyone be doing this?

Supporting with support is pretty fundamental to playing bridge.

 

It can't be right to think of supporting with support as an esoteric notion that can be safely ignored until you are a much better player.

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Yeah, I don't get it. Raising to 2 seems easy, not advanced expert stuff.

 

If 3 as a mini-splinter instead was right on this hand (close maybe), then that might be the esoteric expert bid. But, raising with a nice hand and support does not seem all that out there.

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Definitely worth an immediate raise to 2. Most good players in North America would do this after receiving a 1 response to a 1 opening which is commonly only a four-card suit. It is a no-brainer after a 1 overcall receives a 1 advance, which normally shows a five-card or longer suit.
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Hi,

 

Assuming you play 1S as forcing, and as showing a

5 card suit, than South should bid 2S over 2C.

After that North can simply bid 4S.

 

Assuming you play 1S as forcing, but showing only a

4 card suit, bidding 2S instead of passing is still better,

but passing is ok, although a little bit cautious.

 

Assuming this scenario, I prefer a t/o X instead of the

2H bid, the 2H bid could be made with a weaker hand.

One adv. of the X instead of 2H bid is, that a 2S answer

by South would now show 3 cards.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

The way the auction developed, South should most likely

have bid on after 3D, but it is not easy.

As it is 2S was just a mere preference, i.e. North cannot know,

that South has 3 spades, and because of this the intention of

the 3D may have been to improve the contract, in which case

3D would have shown a 3 carder.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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60 years ago, Goren taught all beginners to raise opener's 4 card major opening on 3 card support.

 

So this does not seem like a concept for experts only.

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[hv=d=n&v=e&n=sk976hkq74dq9ct95&s=sqthaj62dajt754ca]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 -     Pass  Pass  1

 1    Dbl   Pass  2

 Pass  Pass  Pass  

 

 

Here's another but a different partnership - it was suggested North bid 2nt after 2. What say you?

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[hv=d=n&v=e&n=sk976hkq74dq9ct95&s=sqthaj62dajt754ca]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 -     Pass  Pass  1

 1    Dbl   Pass  2

 Pass  Pass  Pass  

 

 

Here's another but a different partnership - it was suggested North bid 2nt after 2. What say you?

What is North dbl?

If it is t/o (and promising 4 ) than South is forced to make a bid even with the weakest possible hand. 2 is a weak rebid and South is about an Ace better than a weak rebid. So the correct bid from South is 3.

Why should North bid 2NT over 2 at IMPs?

North has 10 HCP that will also work playing 2 and nothing in . South bid and so South will not have 4 and since South showed minimum values it is unlikely that South has stopper. So North has to assume that the suit is wide open in NT.

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On the second hand, S is stuck after the double, because the AJxx in hearts rates to be worth less than the a priori valuation: you are playing against weird/hyper-aggressive opps if they overcall a 5 card suit headed by the 10.

 

So I agree with 2... game rates to be poor unless partner can bid again.

 

Then the spotlight shifts to North... the diamond Q is good, and the hearts appear to be positionally sound, so 2N is possible, as is the chosen pass... and there is a middle position, of 3, which would fetch 3N.

 

Of course, 3N rates to fail, since the opps will surely lead clubs... indeed, if N is declarer, east can hardly not lead a club on the auction, since he is void in hearts (if he isn't void.. get west drug tested)... and the diamond K rates to be offside.

 

How do you think you'd do in 4 by N after a club lead, with silent opps? I think it is an interesting contract, assuming you don't know trump are 5-0 until you pull one round.

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As south I would have passed the negative double. I have had huge success doing this on unbalanced hands with four in the major. Of course I'm not claiming a gigantic number just yet, as they could easily be running to clubs.

 

After 2 north should certainly bid 2NT, although it may lead to a bad 3NT this time. But the auction always gets a bit weird when the opponents steal your fit.

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<!-- PARTNERSNS begin --><table border=1> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td>Dealer:</td> <td> East </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Vul:</td> <td> NS </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Scoring:</td> <td> IMP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table border='1'> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> QT974 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> AQ86 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> K94 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> A </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> KJ6 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> 9 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> AT852 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> K864 </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- PARTNERSNS end -->

 

West  North East  South

 

 -     -     1    1

 Pass  1    2    Pass

 Pass  2    Pass  2

 Pass  3    Pass  Pass

 Pass  

 

edit.

Jdonn said it all.

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Definitely worth an immediate raise to 2. It is a no-brainer after a 1 overcall receives a 1 advance, which normally shows a five-card or longer suit.

This certainly is news to me. I think I've been bidding a lot of these incorrectly.

No.

 

It is a matter of partnership agreement, if your agreement

is, that bidding a new suit is forcing and showes only a 4

carder, than this is fine.

It is certainly true, that usually bidding a new suit showes 5

cards, but if the bid occurrs on the 1 level, than promising

only 4 cards is not uncommon.

 

I also think, that playing a change of suit as nonforcing is more

common, but I may wel be wrong.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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In the first case, did you ever discuss what a double of 2 Club had shown?

Penalty? Take out? Extra strength?

 

You should try support doubles instead, showing 3 card spade support. This is even nice when partner had promised 5 Spades, because he can later judge better in competetive auction. And it is better when he is quite weak with a diamond fit, because you may establish your real fit lower.

 

In the second case, I would bid 2 Diamond with the south hand and 2 NT with north, leading to 3 NT, failing. But such is life.

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