vanyvon Posted November 12, 2008 Report Share Posted November 12, 2008 Hi all, i have a doubt and would appreciate your feedback. In the following example where the opener reverses, the opponents compete, and responder rebids his initial suit at 3rd level, is the responder rebid clearly forcing or is it subject to a partnership agreement?North East South West 1C Pass 1H 1S 2D 2S 3H Thanks muchYvon Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted November 12, 2008 Report Share Posted November 12, 2008 The reverse in competition may promise slightly less than a normal reverse but even so I think this should be forcing. You may play 2NT as a weak hand that wants to compete to either 3♣, 3♦ or 3♥. Just my personal opinion, I don't know what is standard. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted November 12, 2008 Report Share Posted November 12, 2008 I agree with helene, so this must be standard. I Don't know if there is a standard, but it should be forcing, because you may pass or bid 2 NT (if discussed) with a weak hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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