kgr Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 We play:1♥-(2♣) : 2♣=5+c♣ and 4c♠1♥-(3♣) : 6c♣ and intermediate strength (10-16)Because we don't have a natural 2♣ overcall we need the jump to 3♣ to be intermediate and not weak. The above is an example as we also have other 2 suit overcalls.Given the above:(Pass)-1♥-(3♣): Would you still play 3♣ intermediate here or do you think it is more usefull to have it preemptive if partner passed and have not bid for a good hand with only ♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 Partner as a passed hand would tend, IMO, to suggest intermediate more than if partner was not a passed hand. Why? Because I'll have an intermediate hand more often than otherwise, I think. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 Agree with our best theorist. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted November 10, 2008 Author Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 Partner as a passed hand would tend, IMO, to suggest intermediate more than if partner was not a passed hand. Why? Because I'll have an intermediate hand more often than otherwise, I think. Makes sense....But because partner is a passed hand we can bid a lot of intermediates as weak because game will be very unlikely on a lot of these hands. Maybe that makes weak a better agreement with a passed partner? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 Partner as a passed hand would tend, IMO, to suggest intermediate more than if partner was not a passed hand. Why? Because I'll have an intermediate hand more often than otherwise, I think. Makes sense....But because partner is a passed hand we can bid a lot of intermediates as weak because game will be very unlikely on a lot of these hands. Maybe that makes weak a better agreement with a passed partner? The best answer is an example.If the range is 10-16 (not sure I like that range), let's assume an average intermediate hand: ♠xx ♥Qxx ♦Ax ♣AQJxxx What does partner need for game? If he has the club King, where we do not rely on a club finesse, we can see seven tricks already. Add in the diamond King and spade Ace, and nine tricks are there. So, it looks like Responder can have a fairly assured 3NT contract when he has a 10-count. If the finesse is OK with Advancer, then a 7-count works. This idea suggests that the "range" should be less a matter of high card points, or even distributional strength, but more a matter of "notrump amenability." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 Well, I would say, 3C is still intermediate, butpartner is allowed to play games. So in effect, I am saying, partner wants to bid 3Cfor what ever tactical reason, and expects action only, if I have a fit. This means basically, you give up bidding game in this seq., but facing a passed partner, an opponent,who opened, I say, it will be seldom, and partner is allowed to bid 3NT with club honors. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
H_KARLUK Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 I liked Kenrexford's words : "What does partner need for game?" Questionable and reasonable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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