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Dealer: North
Vul: None
Scoring: MP
K983
8
A762
KJ103
 

 

North 1 -(pass) - South1 - (pass)

North 2 NT - (pass) - South ?

 

It had thought to bid 3 Stayman but tell myself that is not correct, that I can do?

The train has already left the station.

 

The correct reply to 1 is 1.

 

Even if you are certain that partner will intepret 3 as natural and forcing, any spade fit is gone. Subsequent spade bids will be towards 3nt.

 

If you bid 3, natural and forcing, the clubs are lost forever.

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Hi,

 

3NT.

 

It is a matter of agreement, if you respond 1D or

1S to the 1C opening, assumng 1D was ok, than

2NT should deny a 4 card major, so opener wont

have a 4 card major.

 

Since you seem to play 4 card major, 6C is a

reasonable contract to look for, so the alternative

to 3NT would be 4C, or 3C (if it would be natural

and forcing), setting trumps.

3C would be perfect, but if you cant bid 3C, and since

you posed the problem as MP problem ..., I would go

with 3NT.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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This is a test on the natural system 4°major, I have to alone to answer on the bids better. For me it would have been right the Stayman because my companion according to me could have 4s and could be played 6 s, could have 3c and 4s hand balanced. But they claim to think me still because la Stayman does not go well. Thanks still for your patience you are all very kind and I have not expert to that it ask. Sorry for my bad english. This hand is for duplicated
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But they claim to think me still because la Stayman does not go well. Sorry for my bad english.

Oh no! I really like your English.

It's not good, but (I think) I understand it and it's just so.... charming!

 

When the 2NT rebid can contain 4 and/or 4 you must now try 3.

You could bid 3 hoping that partner understands it as (checkback) Stayman or at least as a forcing bid, but I would not try this undiscussed.

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Sorry for my bad english.

No need to apologise. This is not a forum for English grammar (perhaps the Water Cooler is), so the important thing is that we understand what you mean. We do.

 

As for your bid now, I would try 3 unless I have a clear agreement regarding 3. Unlike P_Marlowe I don't think opener has denied a 4-card major for his jump to 2NT. If opener's next bid is 3NT, I will take stock and decide if I should pass or bid 4, natural and forcing.

 

At IMPs I would for sure. It's not as obvious at matchpoints in my opinion.

 

Roland

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Dealer: North
Vul: None
Scoring: MP
K983
8
A762
KJ103
 

 

North 1 -(pass) - South1 - (pass)

North 2 NT - (pass) - South ?

 

It had thought to bid 3 Stayman but tell myself that is not correct, that I can do?

 

Assuming that you play 4-card major with a weak NT.

 

The question is what can partner have for his bidding?:

 

1. It seems a 18-19 count playing 1NT for 15-17.

 

2. With a balanced hand, partner would have opened 1M or 1m without a 4-card major.

 

3. With an unbalanced hand with 5-clubs and a 4-card major, partner would have opened 1 and then reverse with 2M.

 

4. With a 4-4-1-4, 1 is the correct opening bid.

 

5. So, his hand type is either (2) or (4) given that he opened and rebid correctly.

 

It seems in your comment that you are playing Check Back Stayman. IMO 3 Check Back is in order here. If partner denies a 4-card major, he must have at least 4-clubs and therefore I will then proceed towards 6.

 

Note: I agree responding 1 with your hand and also even with a 5/6-card minor. Minors are for children! Only if you can reverse, you can bid your 5/6-card minor. With a 4-card minor, always respond 1M even with a strong hand. It really makes the bidding afterwards a lot easier. For example, to drive on to 6 is a lot more difficult after bidding 1 instead of 1. Also, to find a 4-4 fit in a major as soon as possible is more important than showing a minor.

 

I do not agree with a 3 bid here. It advertises 5-diamonds and 4-spades, probably reversing values, partner can now drive on towards 6 having hand type 2 with a 4-3 fit.

 

I hope the above helps a little.

Regards

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I'd rebid 3, transfer showing 4.

 

If partner accepts the transfer, I'm cuebidding 4 next.

If partner rebids 3NT, I'm continuing with a natural 4.

 

(I'd not have bid 1 initially, playing Walsh or T-Walsh in all partnerships.)

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I think 1 is a real error due to the club support. If you have a diamond fit then your club fit is just as good, so no need to look at diamonds. If you start with 1 then you can systematically show clubs next round. This avoids the current problem of having no good way to both look for a spade fit and support clubs.
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I'd rebid 3, transfer showing 4.

 

If partner accepts the transfer, I'm cuebidding 4 next.

If partner rebids 3NT, I'm continuing with a natural 4.

 

(I'd not have bid 1 initially, playing Walsh or T-Walsh in all partnerships.)

Is this a known method in a standard system or is it by partnership agreement? I assumed that deep is playing a standard 4-card major with a weak NT. Does this replaces Check Back?

Regards

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