Weak 3NT vs Serious 3NT

[Antoine Fourrière]

I don't believe ♠QTx ♥xx ♦AKJxxx ♣KQ should start 1♠ 2♦ 2♠ 3♠, because you aren't really interested in your partner's diamonds (his worse possible holding is three small, and even then you're a favorite not to lose a single trick). With that hand, your primary concern is key cards, and your secondary concern is to avoid a heart lead if the opponents hold ♥K, ♥Q and a spade trick. I think 2NT Jacoby followed by Blackwood should give you all the information you really need. Sure, you won't be able to discover the lack of a heart control, but it isn't obvious to lead a heart when you've got only one of the top two honors and you do not know responder has a source of tricks, which makes a slam with twelve tricks without a control in a side suit neither a good nor a bad proposition. (True, you may end up in a slam missing both a heart control and the ♠J, or even the ♦Q, which now is bad.)

With ♠xxx ♥Kx ♦AKJxx ♣Axx, you probably want feedback about diamonds, which means you'll have to disclose a possible source of tricks, so the bidding should indeed start 1♠ 2♦ 2♠ 3♠, but I still don't think opener should have to show his controls, because a 4♣ bid will increase the probability of a heart lead when you don't want it, and a 4♥ bid will increase the probability of a club lead when you don't want it either.

[cwiggins]

I have a question about the 4M signoff regardless whether you are playing Serious or Frivolous.

 

Playing 2/1 GF, after 1S-2H; 2S 3S, do you ever bid 4S rather than a non-serious cue-bid or a Frivolous 3NT (whichever you are playing)?

 

For myself, I do and it means that I have a control poor minimum for my previous bidding. E.g. with

Qxx/KQxxx/KQx/xx

I would be 4S with my 2 controls. Partner has to have 3 Aces (or 2 aces and shortness) to think about slam.

 

But with

Axx/KQxxx/Kxx/xx

I would bid Frivolous 3NT or 4D cue bid.

 

Does this make sense? Does something else make better sense?

 

Chris

[Flame]

I have a question about the 4M signoff regardless whether you are playing Serious or Frivolous.

 

Playing 2/1 GF, after 1S-2H; 2S 3S, do you ever bid 4S rather than a non-serious cue-bid or a Frivolous 3NT (whichever you are playing)?

 

For myself, I do and it means that I have a control poor minimum for my previous bidding. E.g. with

Qxx/KQxxx/KQx/xx

I would be 4S with my 2 controls. Partner has to have 3 Aces (or 2 aces and shortness) to think about slam.

 

But with

Axx/KQxxx/Kxx/xx

I would bid Frivolous 3NT or 4D cue bid.

 

Does this make sense? Does something else make better sense?

 

Chris

You should switch ♥ and ♠ in the examples.

I'm sure its not right to never bid 4♠

your proposal looks good, but its realy hard to judge how good.

other ideas can be like picture raise having no control outside the two suits, or can be some control showing that will be hard to show after the 3nt, 4♠ could show controls in both club and diamond.