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Under Bidder Strikes Again


han

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I would have bid 3 over 2 showing a 5-5, but understand if you play that as a splinter.

 

I would play this as 4h and 6d and invite. :)

Well no claims that my treatment is standard. I also play that all invites bid 2, so 3, e.g. would be GF. Sorry if I made it seem that what I played was standard, because it's not.

 

For example, playing with Jason, I would have the same problem that Han did.

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Partner passed me in 3 one time, same auction (but we were not playing 2 artificial), and with a similar hand - club void, nothing in spades, 14 HCP in the red suits. 3 was the last making spot. I had something like KJ to 7 clubs and a ten count.

 

Not sure that I would be brave enough to Pass, but it could easily be right, and I suspect it is best. Probably I would bid a cowardly 3.

 

3d even assuming pard can have much much less, much more often. :)

In fact I will assume pard cannot have this hand but has:    :)

 

Kxx....xx....xx...AQJxxx

Why will you assume partner has that hand when you heard him bid 3 over 2?

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"Why will you assume partner has that hand when you heard him bid 3♣ over 2♦?"

 

 

 

This would seem to be the typical hand my partner might have...ok maybe I am a bit pessimistic but really...not that much.

 

Also I thought I have seen Han post that he does not open sound.

 

In any case it seems 3d is our system bid.

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It seems that 3 is your only bid.

 

You have 5-5. You bid hearts, you made an artificial game forcing 2 call, so now you show your second suit.

 

So far, no problem. The problem may come on the next call.

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Given that we still may have game in three strains opposite

 

Kxx, Ax, xx, QJxxxx;

 

Ax Ax xxx Qxxxxx

 

xxx AJ Jx KQxxxx

 

and none of these are would I would call full openers, I can't see passing.

 

I also understand that hands like Kxx x xx AQJxxxx offer little chance for game, but it's a little pessimistic to play pard for specifically 3=7 in the blacks here.

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Given that we still may have game in three strains opposite

 

Kxx, Ax, xx, QJxxxx;

 

Ax Ax xxx Qxxxxx

 

xxx AJ Jx KQxxxx

What do you think 3 shows? Are you seriously rerebidding clubs with Qxxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 when you have AJ and KQxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 with Kxx and QJxxxx?

I mean, rebidding 2 with these hands is ugly, but you have to do it, but 3???

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I'm a bit confused by any discussion of passing. Han wrote that his methods were 2 is an artificial game force. Therefore, partner can have a very good hand and still bid 3 as he knows you won't pass it! I can understand a discussion of pass if 2 was a one-round force.

But 3 is also a descriptive bid.

If partner is of the school that would often raise 1 to 2 with 3 hearts, and usually give preference to 2 over 2 with Hx in hearts, then the chances of making game have decreased quite a lot. We will make game opposite maximums (see Roger's example), but probably go down opposite minimums. Since partner is more likely to hold a minimum than a maximum, there is certainly a good case for passing.

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I'm a bit confused by any discussion of passing.  Han wrote that his methods were 2 is an artificial game force.  Therefore, partner can have a very good hand and still bid 3 as he knows you won't pass it!  I can understand a discussion of pass if 2 was a one-round force.

But 3 is also a descriptive bid.

If partner is of the school that would often raise 1 to 2 with 3 hearts, and usually give preference to 2 over 2 with Hx in hearts, then the chances of making game have decreased quite a lot. We will make game opposite maximums (see Roger's example), but probably go down opposite minimums. Since partner is more likely to hold a minimum than a maximum, there is certainly a good case for passing.

I understand, but also think that if partner held something like:

 

x x JTxx AKQJxxx

 

They would be none too pleased to be playing in 3.

 

And let me put it yet another way. If we were going to pass 3, why did we choose to game force?

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What do you think 3 shows? Are you seriously rerebidding clubs with Qxxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 when you have AJ and KQxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 with Kxx and QJxxxx?

I mean, rebidding 2 with these hands is ugly, but you have to do it, but 3???

Arend, the point of these hands isn't to show what a 3 call is supposed to look like, it supposed to demonstrate that even opposite many sub-miumums that game is still something we want to bid.

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What do you think 3 shows? Are you seriously rerebidding clubs with Qxxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 when you have AJ and KQxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 with Kxx and QJxxxx?

I mean, rebidding 2 with these hands is ugly, but you have to do it, but 3???

Arend, the point of these hands isn't to show what a 3 call is supposed to look like, it supposed to demonstrate that even opposite many sub-miumums that game is still something we want to bid.

Phil, please re-read what you just wrote. Paraphrased, you just said "these examples were not meant to have anything to do with the auction, they were just meant to prove that I am right'.

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What do you think 3 shows? Are you seriously rerebidding clubs with Qxxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 when you have AJ and KQxxxx? Or 3 instead of 2 with Kxx and QJxxxx?

I mean, rebidding 2 with these hands is ugly, but you have to do it, but 3???

Arend, the point of these hands isn't to show what a 3 call is supposed to look like, it supposed to demonstrate that even opposite many sub-miumums that game is still something we want to bid.

Phil, please re-read what you just wrote. Paraphrased, you just said "these examples were not meant to have anything to do with the auction, they were just meant to prove that I am right'.

???You can 'paraphrase' this anyway you want Arend.

 

HTF do we know who's "right" here anyway LOL. We haven't even seen the other hand.

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HTF do we know who's "right" here anyway LOL. We haven't even seen the other hand.

In my opinion, seeing the other hand will not prove anyone right; it is enough to know that we have established a forcing auction, so we cannot pass 3 whether or not it worked out on this particular hand.

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What was the result here.  I understand it was bidding practice, but I'm still curious about the "under bidding".

The result was that I made fun of Han, but stopping in 3 seems right on the actual set of hands. I forgot what I actually held, sorry, but I was 3-7 in the blacks.

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