kenrexford Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 1NT(15-17)-3♣(puppet)3♦(no 5-card but at least one 4-card)-5NT(?) I bid 5NT, which ended up with a specific reaction that may have been the right end decision but resulted in a poor score. The other three at the table had no idea what 5NT meant. FWIW, the scoring was teams. I had the option of bidding 4♣ or 4♦ instead, either of which would be natural but typically unbalanced (5431, for example). I also had the option in a different sequence of showing specifically 3244/2344 and slammish (describing which doubleton major and which 3-card major). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 (03)55 or quantitative to 7NT. of course the two hands are not exactly the same but as opener I'd have bid my better minor as a safety play. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 Not sure what it means in the Ken Rexford system but normally it would be quanty if nothing else is agreed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 I agree with Ken's partner and opponents. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 5N should be invitational to 7N. I would expect a 4 card major. Contrast this to over a 1N - transfer - accept - 5N which should be choose between 6M and 6N. I don't know what you had, but a (32)44 goes through 4♠. Over 4N (slam rejection) you can bid your 3 card fragment is you are trying to back into a 5-3 or good 4-3. If pard is a max and accepting, he can bid a 5 card major himself. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 1NT(15-17)-3♣(puppet)3♦(no 5-card but at least one 4-card)-5NT(?) I bid 5NT, which ended up with a specific reaction that may have been the right end decision but resulted in a poor score. The other three at the table had no idea what 5NT meant. FWIW, the scoring was teams. I had the option of bidding 4♣ or 4♦ instead, either of which would be natural but typically unbalanced (5431, for example). I also had the option in a different sequence of showing specifically 3244/2344 and slammish (describing which doubleton major and which 3-card major). Just a note that if 3C was Puppet, 3D showed one or both, then 4C and 4D are not natural; they are artificial bids, showing both majors, one a slam invite the other with no slam interest and asking opener to pick the suit. At least this is the way I have played Puppet for "decades". Of course other methods are possible, but perhaps those methods should have another name because IMO it is not Puppet any more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 4 hearts, longer clubs, mildly invitational to 7. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 20, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Because two people felt it necessary to correct what I had put forward as pre-conditions, I will explain again. 1. 4minor was agreed as natural, slammish. Not some kind of flag.2. With 3244/2344, you would not bid 4♠. You would initially bid 2NT as a relay to 3♣, and then bid your doubleton major. This was also agreed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 4-4 majors, please bid your major, I want it on your hand? Hmm seriously, if partner doesn't know what 5NT is, then I disagree with the bid no matter my hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Because two people felt it necessary to correct what I had put forward as pre-conditions, I will explain again. Yes, it does seem odd that anyone should think they know more about your system than you do, especially given all the evidence we've seen of its exotic nature. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Slightly worryingly, I have an agreement about a similar (ish) auction to this in one partnership, which is that it is invitational to a grand with 4=4 in the minors. But as you have now told us you have another way to show 4-4 in the minors, it can't be that. Thus I'm left with the 'boring' answer which is that it is the same as 1NT - 5NT i.e. invitational to 7NT, forcing 6NT, but now opener evaluates their hand on the basis that they have already denied a 5-card suit. It also must have a hand type that you can't otherwise show, but we don't know all your system. If you are 4-4 major/minor, surely you have some way to show this? That leave 3=3=(4=3). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ASkolnick Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Depends on what 3H/3S means, I would most likely guess a (31)(54) pattern with between small slam-grand slam values. If he had both minors, he could transfer to one or bid another or make a 2 suited bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 (03)55 or quantitative to 7NT. of course the two hands are not exactly the same but as opener I'd have bid my better minor as a safety play. :) I would interpret it as quantitative to 7NT, but I would accept it conservatively and would indeed bid 6m as a safety play on many hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Because two people felt it necessary to correct what I had put forward as pre-conditions, I will explain again. 1. 4minor was agreed as natural, slammish. Not some kind of flag.2. With 3244/2344, you would not bid 4♠. You would initially bid 2NT as a relay to 3♣, and then bid your doubleton major. This was also agreed. No one corrected your pre-conditions Ken. We (in this case I) simply said that this is how I would have bid a hand with 4-4 in the minors (i.e., 4♠). If 'you' (as you stated in the OP) have a different way to bid a hand with 4-4 in the minors, more power to you. It makes no difference; the relevance is there is already a way to show a hand with 4-4 in the minors, so 5N is not needed for pick-a-minor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 21, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 21, 2008 The responses surprise me. I thought (obviously wrong) that this was a fairly common situation. As to the idea of a quantitative raise to 7NT, I cannot imagine a bid of a grand on mere supposed power at IMP scoring. I think I'd be shunned for life for that sort of B.S. So, it seems to me that this was a forcing raise to 6NT that allowed partner to reconsider one (or both) minors. If the precondition at this point was that he had to have at least one four-card major, then his only interesting pattern would be 4432. Hence, I thought 5NT asked partner to bid a 4-card minor if he has one (of interest). If not, he should just bid 6NT. What I have is irrelevant, but I must logically have one or both minors. The table thought that 5NT was "quantitative, but really strongly invitational." As it was, I had a hand where either meaning was OK by me, as I was, in fact, somewhat tweenish. ♠Axx ♥Axx ♦Qx ♣AQxxx. So, it worked out in the end, sort of. As it was, partner had a (aggressively) upgraded hand that he appropriately opted to show as 15 and accordingly passed wisely, but all things worked well, resulting in the heavily unfavorable slam to make (bid at the other table). I was curious, though, how others played 5NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimG Posted October 21, 2008 Report Share Posted October 21, 2008 So, it seems to me that this was a forcing raise to 6NT that allowed partner to reconsider one (or both) minors. As it was, partner had a (aggressively) upgraded hand that he appropriately opted to show as 15 and accordingly passed wisely, but all things worked well, resulting in the heavily unfavorable slam to make (bid at the other table). I don't think it is wise to pass a forcing bid because you've upgraded and are having second thoughts; either it's worth 15 or it's not, and once you've decided you need to stick with that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 22, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 So, it seems to me that this was a forcing raise to 6NT that allowed partner to reconsider one (or both) minors. As it was, partner had a (aggressively) upgraded hand that he appropriately opted to show as 15 and accordingly passed wisely, but all things worked well, resulting in the heavily unfavorable slam to make (bid at the other table). I don't think it is wise to pass a forcing bid because you've upgraded and are having second thoughts; either it's worth 15 or it's not, and once you've decided you need to stick with that. I meant that partner passed wisely because he took 5NT as "very highly invitational," as per the table understanding of the bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted October 22, 2008 Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 I see. We don't bid 7N slams on power at IMPs, but we need a highly invitational bid that lets us stop in 5N rather than 6N. Got it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 22, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 I see. We don't bid 7N slams on power at IMPs, but we need a highly invitational bid that lets us stop in 5N rather than 6N. Got it. I'm not saying that the table meaning made sense. I thought 5NT was 100% forcing but allowed us to consider a back-in 6♣. I agree that the table meaning seems strange. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted October 22, 2008 Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 How about bidding 4C with that hand? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 22, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 How about bidding 4C with that hand? A 4♣ call typically shows an unbalanced hand (something like 5-4-3-1 shape). However, in retrospect, that might have worked out OK. I either bid 6NT or 6♣, depending on what partner does. My fear, however, was that partner, with at most one of the top three clubs and at most one Ace, would not often enough raise/support clubs if I bid that way, whereas 5NT (I thought) forced him to consider clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted October 22, 2008 Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 Maybe 5NT is theoretically better but in practice an undiscussed 5NT is losing bridge. Now, I'm not saying that winning should be everybody's priority, yours may well be different. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 22, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 Maybe 5NT is theoretically better but in practice an undiscussed 5NT is losing bridge. Now, I'm not saying that winning should be everybody's priority, yours may well be different. I understand the general theory, but if partner cannot go wrong, and likes this sort of thing, WTP? My hand is borderline between forcing the slam and "very strongly inviting" the slam anyway. If he passes, that's probably right (it should have been). If he bids 6♣, I obviously pass. If he bids anything else, I bid 6NT and consider that a fair chance contract. I know that he will not bid 7NT after an undiscussed 5NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tcyk Posted October 27, 2008 Report Share Posted October 27, 2008 Maybe 5NT is theoretically better but in practice an undiscussed 5NT is losing bridge. Now, I'm not saying that winning should be everybody's priority, yours may well be different. I understand the general theory, but if partner cannot go wrong, and likes this sort of thing, WTP? My hand is borderline between forcing the slam and "very strongly inviting" the slam anyway. If he passes, that's probably right (it should have been). If he bids 6♣, I obviously pass. If he bids anything else, I bid 6NT and consider that a fair chance contract. I know that he will not bid 7NT after an undiscussed 5NT. 5NT looks like pick a slam to me. I'd probably bid 4+ card suits up the line Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted October 27, 2008 Report Share Posted October 27, 2008 Maybe 5NT is theoretically better but in practice an undiscussed 5NT is losing bridge. Now, I'm not saying that winning should be everybody's priority, yours may well be different. I understand the general theory, but if partner cannot go wrong, and likes this sort of thing, WTP? Partner passed a bid you intended to be forcing, at slam level, and you think "partner cannot go wrong"??? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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