softcoder Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 What is the consensus meaning for a jump in the fourth suit, when that suit is a minor; weak? invitational?Must the suit of the jump be 6 cards long or could you do it on five? examples:1) 1d-1h;1s-3c?2) 1h-1s; 2c-3d?3) 1c-1h;1s-3d? Thanks,softcode Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 I have no idea what the consesus is but we play these as game forcing 5-5 hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 I am not going to guess what consesus is playing various systems but in 2/1, 6m-4M weak. To play. Opener must not correct to the responder's major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 I am not going to guess what consesus is playing various systems but in 2/1, 6m-4M weak. To play. Opener must not correct to the responder's major. Welcome to Walsh style. :wacko: If you hate Walsh np.I think you need to play this as invite if you have no other way to show long minor(6-4), which I do not, and invite in Walsh.On these auctions with 6-4 and weak, it is a problem with no good solution. With 5-5 forcing I need to go through 4sf.with 5-5 invite I may need to rebid 2nt on many hand types. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Roupoil Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 In France, it's 5-5 game forcing, usually with good suits. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 Hi, #1 GF with 5-5 or inv. with 5-5, I prefer GF, and I dont think 5-5 inv. is playable, but there are good players, who think different#2 (Not) playing Walsh would only have a influence for your 3rd auction With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 GF 5-5 is the most common treatment I think. With Shogi I play it as a splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 Most of the people round here would say a splinter agreeing opener's second suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 (edited) Hardy says it's weak canape in 2/1. Truscott ("The Bidding Dictionary") says there's no standard meaning. I agree with Truscott. And with Hardy, I suppose, but that doesn't make a consensus. Edited to change "no consensus" to "no standard meaning", which is what Truscott actually says. Edited October 19, 2008 by blackshoe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 5-5 GF is the most common agreement over here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 I have no idea what the consesus is but we play these as game forcing 5-5 hands. Same. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
y66 Posted October 19, 2008 Report Share Posted October 19, 2008 According to the current edition (2001) of The Official Encyclopedia of Bridge :Jump rebid by responder - These are jump bids short of game by responder at his second turn. The meanings of such bids vary widely. In traditional Standard American all such jump bids were considered forcing, whether or not responder rebids his own suit, supports partner's suit or names a new suit. In the modern style, all such secondary jumps are non-forcing unless they are in a new suit. Some players treat some as forcing and some as non-forcing. The standard meaning of 1C 1H : 1S 3D is forcing in either style. Other possible agreements: 5-5 invitational; splinter; or mini-splinterIf there's a consensus, it's prolly that this is a good one for partnership discussion. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 According to the current edition (2001) of The Official Encyclopedia of Bridge :Jump rebid by responder - These are jump bids short of game by responder at his second turn. The meanings of such bids vary widely. In traditional Standard American all such jump bids were considered forcing, whether or not responder rebids his own suit, supports partner's suit or names a new suit. In the modern style, all such secondary jumps are non-forcing unless they are in a new suit. Some players treat some as forcing and some as non-forcing. The standard meaning of 1C 1H : 1S 3D is forcing in either style. Other possible agreements: 5-5 invitational; splinter; or mini-splinterIf there's a consensus, it's prolly that this is a good one for partnership discussion. if you play walsh as game forcing style you need a way to show 6 minor-4major invite. IMO is more important to show invite hand and live with problem weak hand. 2/1 Walsh game forcing style means you cannot(very very often) bid one diamond with an an invite and a 4 card major hand over 1c and you cannot bid 2d over one heart with an invite hand and 4 spades. As I mentioned above this means you may need to go through 4sf with 5-5 game force or rebid 2nt with 5-5 invite. This hand type seems to be much more an issue in the forums than at the table. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
softcoder Posted October 20, 2008 Author Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Thanks for all the replies.No consensus seems to be the consensus :) We play Walsh/Hardy style 2/1 where 4th suit is one round force INV or better but not always G/F. The hands that generated the discussion:xAQxxxAJKJxxx vs KT9xx-----QT8xxxxx Our auction: 1H-1S; 2C- 3D; ???2C is non forcing but as it could be on a 3 card suit, and could have as many as 18HCP it is rarely passed. softCode. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 20, 2008 Report Share Posted October 20, 2008 Thanks for all the replies.No consensus seems to be the consensus :) We play Walsh/Hardy style 2/1 where 4th suit is one round force INV or better but not always G/F. The hands that generated the discussion:xAQxxxAJKJxxx vs KT9xx-----QT8xxxxx Our auction: 1H-1S; 2C- 3D; ???2C is non forcing but as it could be on a 3 card suit, and could have as many as 18HCP it is rarely passed. softCode. playing Walsh you need to slow down! 1h=1s2c=2s playing walsh you must accept diamond suit can be lost.....lost often! you must accept should 3d be invite or 3d be weak.....what is more important! keep in mind Walsh focus on majors..and then nt and then clubs and last ...diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
softcoder Posted November 5, 2008 Author Report Share Posted November 5, 2008 Walsh? Slow down?That depends; Hardy in his books claims to follow Walsh. He says the 3D jump here is a weak 4-6. See p26 of Advanced Bidding for the 21st Century Ex 23. 62 / Q974 / KJT862 / 5He says that after 1C-1H;1NT Responder jumps to 3D. Also after 1C-1H;1S jump to 3D, but you accept that you are taking the risk that there may be no fit. In my example hand: KT9xx-----QT8xxxxx after 1H-1S;2C I think the jump to 3D is better than to rebid 2S. (Assuming of course that pard understands this to be weak.) Remember that Opener did not rebid 1NT so he is prob not balanced, and did not raise spades (as he would often do with 3 spades and a stiff diamond) so bidding 2S on a five bagger is not all that safe either, as Opener rates to have a stiff spade.True, in the abstract his shortness (if he is 5431, 5521, or 5530) is more likely to be opposite your longest suit, but given the bidding you can pretty much discount him having 3 spades. So the choice is play 2S on the 5-1 or 3D on the 6-2.As 2S sounds at least mildly invitational, and also tends to show a 6 card suit, (two lies) the better treatment, in my and Hardy's opinion, is to bid 3D. You might be in trouble but often not. As was the case on this hand, where in fact Opener did have 2 card support for diamonds, and did have in fact have a stiff spade.Provided of course that your pard understands 3D to be a drop dead to play bid, and not some INV or G/F. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted November 5, 2008 Report Share Posted November 5, 2008 Walsh? Slow down?That depends; Hardy in his books claims to follow Walsh. He says the 3D jump here is a weak 4-6. See p26 of Advanced Bidding for the 21st Century Ex 23. 62 / Q974 / KJT862 / 5He says that after 1C-1H;1NT Responder jumps to 3D. Also after 1C-1H;1S jump to 3D, but you accept that you are taking the risk that there may be no fit. In my example hand: KT9xx-----QT8xxxxx after 1H-1S;2C I think the jump to 3D is better than to rebid 2S. (Assuming of course that pard understands this to be weak.) Remember that Opener did not rebid 1NT so he is prob not balanced, and did not raise spades (as he would often do with 3 spades and a stiff diamond) so bidding 2S on a five bagger is not all that safe either, as Opener rates to have a stiff spade.True, in the abstract his shortness (if he is 5431, 5521, or 5530) is more likely to be opposite your longest suit, but given the bidding you can pretty much discount him having 3 spades. So the choice is play 2S on the 5-1 or 3D on the 6-2.As 2S sounds at least mildly invitational, and also tends to show a 6 card suit, (two lies) the better treatment, in my and Hardy's opinion, is to bid 3D. You might be in trouble but often not. As was the case on this hand, where in fact Opener did have 2 card support for diamonds, and did have in fact have a stiff spade.Provided of course that your pard understands 3D to be a drop dead to play bid, and not some INV or G/F. Your given hand K10xxx-v-Q108xxx-xx is not at all like the hand given in the Hardy example you quote and the auction is different as well. - spades are five cards- diamonds are just long, not good- opener rebid 2C, not 1NT Also 1H-1S-2C opener shows a 4-card club suit (not three) WITH a reason not to rebid 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 5, 2008 Report Share Posted November 5, 2008 "In my example hand: KT9xx-----QT8xxxxx after 1H-1S;2C I think the jump to 3D is better than to rebid 2S. (Assuming of course that pard understands this to be weak.)" this is a typical death hand in Walsh. Thank goodness I have never seen this at the table but only in bidding quizzes. I rebid 3d. 1h=1s2c=3d one must just choose to live with this auction should it ever come up in real life. with invite strength I got to bid 2nt very often. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dwingo Posted November 5, 2008 Report Share Posted November 5, 2008 If you play 4th suit as forcing to game, then this sequence is invitational as you have other ways of describing 5-5 GF hands. If you play 4th suit as Invitational, then it makes sense to play these sequences as GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Strangway Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 On the auction 1h 1s 2c you would clearly show a 2 suiter by starting with 2d (4th suit forcing) and rebidding diamonds (assuming partner does not raise which is coneivable). (also assumes GF...though i think even with 1rnd force the sequence described would probably be forcing). Since diamonds are shown with 4th suit and then a diamond bit...3d must be a splinter. Walsh is a 1 lvl convention and has no reference to this sequence. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 All these used to be 55 GF's for me. But for some years I've been playing the xyz-convention, which apply after 1/1/1. It's very similar to the xy-NT (or 2-way check back or whatever). And then jumps in the fourth suit after bidding three suits at the 1-level became 55 INV, since all GF hands rebid 2♦. Now I prefer to use 2♣ with all INV hands (and drop dead in 2♦), 2NT as a puppet to 3♣ (to drop or certain special GF hands) and all jumps are returning to be 55 GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted November 10, 2008 Report Share Posted November 10, 2008 It seems popular in my area to play that jump in the 4th suit is 5-5 or better invite. Game forcing two suited hands go through 4th suit forcing (most play as game forcing). Weak canape hands leave you stuck, you have to generally correct to opener's first suit. Note that even not playing Walsh these hands will come up in sequences like 1♦-1♥-1♠ with longer clubs than hearts or 1♥-1♠-2♣ with longer diamonds than spades. This is different from when opener rebids 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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