nickf Posted October 16, 2008 Report Share Posted October 16, 2008 [hv=n=sakxhqxxdatca8xxx&s=sxxxhakxdqxxxckxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You're in 3NT after an uncontested auction and the lead is the CQ, RHO showing out. What's the percentage line in diamonds for your 9th trick? nickfsydney Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jikl Posted October 16, 2008 Report Share Posted October 16, 2008 Doesn't what RHO pitched matter here? Since it is also possible that you could keep attacking ♣s to put pressure on RHO. Sean Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted October 16, 2008 Report Share Posted October 16, 2008 I have assumed that the only thing we know is that clubs are 5-0, that we win the ♣K at trick 1, and we play diamonds immediately. According to my calculations, playing Ace and another diamond, putting up the Queen whether or not the ten is covered by the Jack, will work 65.1% of the time.Playing a diamond to the ten works when the Jack is onside, and when the King is accompanied by fewer than 3 other cards. This works 61.1% of the time. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 16, 2008 Report Share Posted October 16, 2008 If you happen to duck the club lead, and then win the club Jack with the King to force the split of the 10-9, which you also duck, and THEN win the spade return, you might end up with some sort of squeeze of some variety. I'm too rushed to work it out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jikl Posted October 22, 2008 Report Share Posted October 22, 2008 Nick, you never answered? Sean Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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