Stayman sequence

[InTime]

I don't see why 2♠ should be forcing if it shows four spades. A GF hand would bid either 3NT or 3m, which does show four spades, regardless of what 2N shows or denies.

 

OK, a hand that wants to bid a quantitative 4N but with four spades should maybe bid 2♠ first. But it kinda defeats the purpose of playing 2♠ as natural, I think.

 

A related issue: is

1NT-2♣

2♥-3m*

forcing? Although it is (or at least used to be) nonforcing in (at least) some beginners' textbooks in the Netherlands, I think the standard interpretation is natural GF with four spades. But if one does not play 4-way transfers or something similar, I can imagine using 3m via 2♠ to show such a hand.

 

Oh well, this is probably academic, in practice players who don't play 4-way or similar won't have such detailed agreements about Stayman.

I think the idea is that both majors are treated equal and that the contract will end at maximum 3M without enough values for game.

For example:

1NT - 2♣ - 2♥ - 3♥ - Pass / 3NT or 4♥

1NT - 2♣ - 2♥ - 2♠(forcing) - 2NT / 3♠ / 3NT / 4♠

The reason that 2♠ is considered as forcing is that responder can sit with slam values, is uncertain in what direction he should move and want to hear from partner if he is max/min and does his hand contain 4 spades. It does give him breathing space to consider his next move as long as he knows 2♠ will not be passed. The contract will end at max 3♠ without enough values for game. The same as with ♥'s.

Without the above understanding, responder must probably blast into 4NT uncomfortably.

 

Therefore I feel strongly that 2♠ is the better bid to make. Even if the stayman sequence guarentees a 4-card major.

 

With game going values by responder the bidding will be 1NT - 2♣ - 2♥ - 3NT. Responder is sitting with 4 cards in the other major otherwise it did not make sense to have moved via Stayman.

 

1NT - 2♣ - 2M - 3m

In this instance 3m is NATURAL and forcing and also indicates the other major. Responder is sitting with a 6-4 or 5-4 in a minor/major with slam values and would have started off with 1NT - 3m (slam interest in the minor) not having a 4-card major. Having a 4-card major, he decided to go via stayman first. This bid caters nicely for these types of hands which is sometimes difficult to bid.

 

I hope my interpretation makes sense.

 

Also, I am new to this forum and don't know what the word 'Exotic' exactly means in bridge terms. It sounds like meaning 'over elaborating'? I will appreciate if you can inform me if possible.

 

Regards

[Free]

Isn't the standard these days 1NT-2♣-2♥-2♠ invite with 4♠, while 1NT-2♣-2♦-2♠ is invitational with 5♠ and 4♥?

[InTime]

Isn't the standard these days 1NT-2♣-2♥-2♠ invite with 4♠, while 1NT-2♣-2♦-2♠ is invitational with 5♠ and 4♥?

My attempt was not to put a standard here. I was just trying to explain why certain people probably regards 2♠ as forcing. At the end it is all about partnership agreement. I dont think there is a general standard.

[skjaeran]

Isn't the standard these days 1NT-2♣-2♥-2♠ invite with 4♠, while 1NT-2♣-2♦-2♠ is invitational with 5♠ and 4♥?

I don't think there's a standard at all. Or there might be some places.

 

For me 2♠ is a GF relay in both sequences, asking for distribution. Many play that over here, but I'd not call it standard by any means.