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How do you respond?


ArcLight

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Playing 4-way transfers, the normal auction would be 2 (clubs) followed by 3 (shortness). This has a good chance of reaching the best of 3NT, 4, and 4.

 

Playing what Elianna and I normally play, I would bid stayman followed by 3 (forcing) over 2-RED or 3NT (to play) over 2.

 

Playing Keri-Garrod, 2NT (transfer to clubs) followed by 3 (fragment with short spades). This has much the same effect as the above.

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IMPS, Unfavorable, playing with a pick up pard

LHO passes, pard opens 1NT (15-17) RHO passes

 

What do you bid holding:

S: x

H: A J x

D: x x x

C: K Q T 9 x x

 

How would you respond with your favorite pard?

3H Fragment bid.

Strength for 3nt, no 4 card major, the other major is extremely weak.

 

 

a more typical 3H bid would be:

 

x....Kxx...Qxxxx...AQTx

 

Now:

 

iF partner rebids 3nt I pass

If partner rebids 4d I rebid 5c.

If partner rebids 4H i pass.

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My rule for those situation is asking myself if 6m possible.

 

xxx

KQxx

AKx

Axx

 

make 6 a great spot.

 

So here i believe that C is an option that can easily be better (& much better) than 3Nt. Make the hand a bit weaker to the point that 6m is highly unlikely and i think that blasting to 3nt is best.

 

A important point to discuss, is a fragment bid (31)(54) unconditionnally GF or is stopping to 4m possible (in mp). I have no strong feeling about it but play it GF

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My rule for those situation is asking myself if 6m possible.

 

xxx

KQxx

AKx

Axx

 

make 6 a great spot.

 

So here i believe that C is an option that can easily be better (& much better) than 3Nt. Make the hand a bit weaker to the point that 6m is highly unlikely and i think that blasting to 3nt is best.

 

A important point to discuss, is a fragment bid (31)(54) unconditionnally GF or is stopping to 4m possible (in mp). I have no strong feeling about it but play it GF

LOL

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My rule for those situation is asking myself if 6m possible.

 

xxx

KQxx

AKx

Axx

 

make 6 a great spot.

 

So here i believe that C is an option that can easily be better (& much better) than 3Nt. Make the hand a bit weaker to the point that 6m is highly unlikely and i think that blasting to 3nt is best.

 

A important point to discuss, is a fragment bid (31)(54) unconditionnally GF or is stopping to 4m possible (in mp). I have no strong feeling about it but play it GF

My rule in these situations is to ask myself whether, by describing my hand, I can allow partner to choose between 3N and 5. Slam is secondary, altho should partner wax enthusiastic, I will be happy to cooperate.

 

Requiring that you can construct hands on which slam makes in order to avoid 3N is very, very bad imp strategy. It is enough if we can construct hands on which 5minor is superior to 3N... provided that we can meaningfully make a choice... and it should be partner's choice, not ours.

 

For example, opposite Kxx KQxx AKxx Jx, I want to be in 5, not 3N, and we have an obvious drawback in slam :blink:

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I am wondering whether Ben and Mike disagree all that much. If an overly optimistic perfect hand for clubs makes 6 good (Ben's criterion?), then a realistic and useful hand for clubs will probably make 5 a good contract (Mike's criterion?).

Anyway, for me showing spade shortness doesn't promise slam interest - still opener might insist on slam with a super-perfect fit such as xxxx KQx AK Axxx.

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It is always a good idea to play in the minor suit when you have good play for slam and 3NT goes down. Whether you actually reach slam is a secondary consideration.
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IMy post wasnt clear enough. What i meant is that if partner perfecto can produce 6 than its worth making a fragment bid or transfering into a m since 5m is a real possibility not just a long shot.

 

If my hand is

 

x

AQx

Kxxxx

Jxxx

 

or

 

Kxx

x

KQxxxx

xxx

 

its pretty hard to construct a hand where 6m is great so with those hand i just blast to 3Nt. I understand that with those hands its possible that 5m/4M is a better spot than 3Nt, its just that the profits doesnt compensate the cost (lead directing X, telling the opps where is your weak suit etc)

 

its the same thing with blasting instead of using stayman with a 4333. Its not because im convinced that 3Nt will be a better spot, but its because I think that the cost of using stayman is higher than the benefits.

 

Like everybody, I agree that fragment bids, MSstayman and minors transfer are primary a way to find the best game and secondly for slams.

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After

1NT-2 - which shows some kind of minor oriented hand (not explicit clubs and not strong long minor), I might have a problem after a 2NT response, which shows preference for diamonds.

 

My Norwegian partner would use repeated stayman - no doubt! Which may be a good alternative when not using 4-way trans - getting the exact distribution. Thus - if partner shows 5 hearts, I'd cue 3 for hearts, After p showing a minor cue, I'd feel contempt with bidding 4.

 

With any other distribution, I might consider 4, which is hiiighly optimistic - planning to pass 4NT/5 bidding 5 after any cue.

 

That's me - but what do I know...

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I would first off, not look at this as missing a slam, but what would be the best contract. It's not beyond imagination to see 5 going down and 3NT being a top.

But to find that out you need to show p your values and distribution and let him make the decision, which may lead you into the slam. Bridge is not a game of perfect and the problem with giving out information is that you have 2 other sets of ears listening. I doubt no one would be surprised to find that 1NT-3NT returns the best results, but such is bridge.

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