jdaming Posted September 25, 2008 Report Share Posted September 25, 2008 [hv=s=sj3hjdq765ckj8765]133|100|[/hv] Partner opens 1♥ what do you respond playing 2/1 Partner bids 2♥ over a forcing 1NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted September 25, 2008 Report Share Posted September 25, 2008 I bid a forcing 1NT in response to my partner's 1♥ opening. If I am playing a nonforcing 1NT, I bid that. The club suit is not good enough for 2♣ followed by 3♣ if you play that as nonforcing, and it goes without saying that the hand is not good enough for a 2/1 if that is forcing to game. When partner rebids 2♥ over my forcing or nonforcing 1NT response, I pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lobowolf Posted September 25, 2008 Report Share Posted September 25, 2008 1NT; then P. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SlickRicky Posted September 25, 2008 Report Share Posted September 25, 2008 Hi, 1N and then pass seems clear enough. Sure clubs could play better, but why gamble over 2H when you have at least 7 of them and possibly 8, and no sure fit in clubs which you will have to play one level higher. Ricky Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 1NT followed by Pass. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 Hi, 1N and then pass seems clear enough. Sure clubs could play better, but why gamble over 2H when you have at least 7 of them and possibly 8, and no sure fit in clubs which you will have to play one level higher. Ricky Of course this assumes that 2H promises a 6 carder, which it may or may not. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dicklont Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 1NT and pass.P must have a 6-card else he would have bid 2♣/♦ (2♠ would be reverse).Generally: when confronted with a misfit get out as soon as you can. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 1NT and pass.P must have a 6-card else he would have bid 2♣/♦ (2♠ would be reverse).Generally: when confronted with a misfit get out as soon as you can. What would he bid with 5-4 in the majors below reversestrength? Ok, if you happen to have the reasonable agreement,that a 2C bid could be made on 2 cards only, than 2Hwill promise 6 cards, but if not, and I am sure that thementioned agreement is not standard, 2H may just be a 5 carder. Or do you play Flannery? Playing this, 5-4 is not possible,hence the 2H bid would be a 6 carder. Of course this does not change the decision to pass 2H,because it is quite likely that partner happens to have 6,and there is no assurance that a level on the 3 level willbe better. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 Ok, if you happen to have the reasonable agreement,that a 2C bid could be made on 2 cards only, than 2Hwill promise 6 cards, but if not, and I am sure that thementioned agreement is not standard, 2H may just be a 5 carder. It's not standard, it's more like universal! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 It's not standard, it's more like universal!Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2♣ shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2♥ must be 6.So, as everyone says, pass. I actually bid 1♠ with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2♥ rebid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 Gwnn of course referred to the 2H bid showing 6 that is universal, and rightly so. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 It's not standard, it's more like universal!Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2♣ shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2♥ must be 6.So, as everyone says, pass. I actually bid 1♠ with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2♥ rebid. 2H can only show 6 cards, if a hand with 4 spades, 5 hearts, 2 diamonds, 2 clubs and below reverse strength has a bid different bid available than 2H.Unless my definition for balanced is different thanyours, this hand has to find a bid. You may choose between Pass, 2C or 2D.If you choose 2C, than 2C could be based on 2 cards and a semi balanced hand.And a semi balanced hand, is not a balanced hand, and if you happen to alert the bid, you hopefully mentionsemibalanced, else your explanation is simply wrong. If you play that 2C / 2D always showes 3 cards, and if you still requre that 2H showes 6 cards, than you play #1 Flannery#2 Kaplan Inversion or a derivate, missed that, I agree, but to defend myself, Kaplan Inversion was not part of the agreement set specified in the original post. Now it may well be, that the majority of 2/1 players playes 2C could be 2 cards, some form of Kaplan Inversion orFlannery, but my guess is, that there are 2/1 playersout there people, who dont, and I doubt that the size of thegroup will be ignorable small.It is up to you to claim, that no world clase player playesa agreement set, without one of the above agreements. But one thing should be clear, you need conv. agreementsso that 2H will always show 6 cards. And you may of course assume that you have one of those agreements in place. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 2♥ promises six. End of discussion. This isn't up for debate. I pass 2♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 26, 2008 Report Share Posted September 26, 2008 It's not standard, it's more like universal!Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2♣ shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2♥ must be 6.So, as everyone says, pass. I actually bid 1♠ with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2♥ rebid. 2H can only show 6 cards, if a hand with 4 spades, 5 hearts, 2 diamonds, 2 clubs and below reverse strength has a bid different bid available than 2H.Unless my definition for balanced is different thanyours, this hand has to find a bid. Playing 2/1 with a forcing 1NT, it's standard to rebid 2♣ over 1NT with 4522 and below reverse strength. Playing a non-forcing NT (I do), you pass 1NT with such a hand. Rebidding 2♥ does show a 6-bagger. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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