Jump to content

Minors over opener's major


jdaming

Recommended Posts

I bid a forcing 1NT in response to my partner's 1 opening.

 

If I am playing a nonforcing 1NT, I bid that. The club suit is not good enough for 2 followed by 3 if you play that as nonforcing, and it goes without saying that the hand is not good enough for a 2/1 if that is forcing to game.

 

When partner rebids 2 over my forcing or nonforcing 1NT response, I pass.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Hi,

 

1N and then pass seems clear enough. Sure clubs could play better, but why gamble over 2H when you have at least 7 of them and possibly 8, and no sure fit in clubs which you will have to play one level higher.

 

Ricky

Of course this assumes that 2H promises a 6 carder,

which it may or may not.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

Link to comment
Share on other sites

1NT and pass.

P must have a 6-card else he would have bid 2/ (2 would be reverse).

Generally: when confronted with a misfit get out as soon as you can.

What would he bid with 5-4 in the majors below reverse

strength?

 

Ok, if you happen to have the reasonable agreement,

that a 2C bid could be made on 2 cards only, than 2H

will promise 6 cards, but if not, and I am sure that the

mentioned agreement is not standard, 2H may just be a

5 carder.

 

Or do you play Flannery? Playing this, 5-4 is not possible,

hence the 2H bid would be a 6 carder.

 

Of course this does not change the decision to pass 2H,

because it is quite likely that partner happens to have 6,

and there is no assurance that a level on the 3 level will

be better.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Ok, if you happen to have the reasonable agreement,

that a 2C bid could be made on 2 cards only, than 2H

will promise 6 cards, but if not, and I am sure that the

mentioned agreement is not standard, 2H may just be a

5 carder.

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2 shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2 must be 6.

So, as everyone says, pass.

 

I actually bid 1 with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2 rebid.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2 shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2 must be 6.

So, as everyone says, pass.

 

I actually bid 1 with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2 rebid.

2H can only show 6 cards, if a hand with 4 spades,

5 hearts, 2 diamonds, 2 clubs and below reverse

strength has a bid different bid available than 2H.

Unless my definition for balanced is different than

yours, this hand has to find a bid.

 

You may choose between Pass, 2C or 2D.

If you choose 2C, than 2C could be based on 2 cards

and a semi balanced hand.

And a semi balanced hand, is not a balanced hand, and

if you happen to alert the bid, you hopefully mention

semibalanced, else your explanation is simply wrong.

 

If you play that 2C / 2D always showes 3 cards, and

if you still requre that 2H showes 6 cards, than you play

 

#1 Flannery

#2 Kaplan Inversion or a derivate, missed that, I agree,

but to defend myself, Kaplan Inversion was not part of

the agreement set specified in the original post.

 

Now it may well be, that the majority of 2/1 players playes

 

2C could be 2 cards, some form of Kaplan Inversion or

Flannery, but my guess is, that there are 2/1 players

out there people, who dont, and I doubt that the size of the

group will be ignorable small.

It is up to you to claim, that no world clase player playes

a agreement set, without one of the above agreements.

 

But one thing should be clear, you need conv. agreements

so that 2H will always show 6 cards.

And you may of course assume that you have one of those

agreements in place.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2 shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2 must be 6.

So, as everyone says, pass.

 

I actually bid 1 with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2 rebid.

2H can only show 6 cards, if a hand with 4 spades,

5 hearts, 2 diamonds, 2 clubs and below reverse

strength has a bid different bid available than 2H.

Unless my definition for balanced is different than

yours, this hand has to find a bid.

Playing 2/1 with a forcing 1NT, it's standard to rebid 2 over 1NT with 4522 and below reverse strength.

 

Playing a non-forcing NT (I do), you pass 1NT with such a hand.

 

Rebidding 2 does show a 6-bagger.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...