Bid these two

[firmit]

Your bid and follow-ups please - if you don't like the system - please elaborate! This is why I ask!

 

1NT is semi-NF. 2/1 followed by rebid in same suit by responder is NF.

Also - 1♠-2♥ is dual - it may be natural with hearts or weak (3-7hp) with 3-4c spades. 1M-2M is 3c 8-11hp. Also, a late support in openers major is GF - thus, 1♠-2x-2♠-3♠ is GF.

 

( A ) Partner opens 1♠ - you hold

 

♠ Q x

♥ A J x x x

♦ Q J T x x

♣ x

 

----------

 

( B ) You open 1♦ - 1♠ response from partner - your bid and follow-up pls.

 

♠ Q T x

♥ A Q x

♦ A K T x x x

♣ A

 

----

 

Motivation for (A) is that I want your opinion whether or not the system needs to be changed.

( B ) is just a funny hand - with options!

[655321]

(A) 1NT, a WTP given that 2♥ is game forcing unless followed by 3♥.

(B) 2♥, also WTP.

[rogerclee]

(A) 1NT, a WTP given that 2♥ is game forcing unless followed by 3♥.

(:) 2♥, also WTP.

Yes!

[mike777]

Playing litish openings:

 

 

1) 1s=1nt(sf) this hand is not even worth an invite in this style. Now if pard rebids:

2d my hand has gotten better I can rebid 3d showing around 12-13 support points and 5d. or 4 excellent ones.

If pard rebids 2c I can bid 2d BART.

If pard rebids 2s I bid 4s.

 

 

2) I open 2nt (20-21).

I will not superaccept in major if pard transfers.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

#A 1NT, wtp.

Just because I can check out in 3H does not mean

I can bid 2H, 3H should show 6.

 

#B 2H, if partner raises, we have a spade fit, but not a

wtp for me.

Let partner respond 1H and it becomes harder,

most likely I would go with 3D, downgrading the hand

because of the single Ace.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[han]

Sign me up for WTP as well, and I have no problem with the system.

[awm]

The first hand is actually a sticky one for most systems. Even playing methods where there are fewer forcing sequences after a 2/1 bid, you will often see the auction 1♠-2♥-2♠, after which:

 

(1) If 2♠ is NF (as in Acol and some older versions of standard american) then you can pass. But you could easily have a huge diamond fit on a hand where opener is not strong enough to reverse, or be making 4♠ when opener has a minimum with extra spade length.

 

(2) If 2♠ is forcing one round (or if it's NF but you decide to bid) then typically rebidding 3♦ is forcing. So you could easily end up pushing to a silly 3NT when opener has a minimum with spades and clubs. Alternately you could rebid 2NT over 2♠ but this is hardly a good description of the 5-5 hand with singleton in an unbid suit.

 

This hand is one where playing a truly forcing 1NT response may help you -- you can force game if opener rebids a red suit, or raise a 2♠ rebid to three, or use some kind of BART to show this hand over a 2♣ call.

 

This is the price you pay for playing a non-forcing (or semi-forcing) 1NT response. You gain when you get to play in 1NT holding a balanced hand opposite a balanced opener, and you also gain on some hands where opener rebids 2m and you know it's a real suit (or extras if semi-forcing) rather than potentially being a 3-carder in a minimum balanced hand. But you lose when you have a very shapely responder hand like this one.

[han]

It seems a bit soon to call this hand a loss when playing semi-forcing 1NT responses. Bart would of course be really nice on this hand if partner bids 2C as expected.

[skjaeran]

This is the price you pay for playing a non-forcing (or semi-forcing) 1NT response. You gain when you get to play in 1NT holding a balanced hand opposite a balanced opener, and you also gain on some hands where opener rebids 2m and you know it's a real suit (or extras if semi-forcing) rather than potentially being a 3-carder in a minimum balanced hand. But you lose when you have a very shapely responder hand like this one.

And what method do you think pays the highest price? (I know it's a tough question, and the answer will depend on scoring (MP/BAM/IMP).)