myfish Posted April 8, 2004 Report Share Posted April 8, 2004 hi,first time to post here i still have many question ;) in sayc,is there any different between 1S-2D-2S and 1S-2C-2S? also,in 2/1,does 1S-2D-2S show exactly 6 card !S? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bearmum Posted April 8, 2004 Report Share Posted April 8, 2004 hi,first time to post here i still have many question :) in sayc,is there any different between 1S-2D-2S and 1S-2C-2S? also,in 2/1,does 1S-2D-2S show exactly 6 card !S? the way I play SAYC and 2/1 Q1 NO Q2 YES Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keylime Posted April 8, 2004 Report Share Posted April 8, 2004 hi,first time to post here i still have many question :) in sayc,is there any different between 1S-2D-2S and 1S-2C-2S? also,in 2/1,does 1S-2D-2S show exactly 6 card !S? the way I play SAYC and 2/1 Q1 NO Q2 YES Answer: MAYBE for question one. Some players play 1S-2C and 1S-2D differently. 2C being a generic force with 2D promising 4 diamonds at a minimum. I personally used to use 2C as a generic GF with as short as TWO clubs IF lacking 4 diamonds. For number two, depends on what form of 2/1. I use promising five only to solve the 2NT trap that 2/1'ers fall into. Trying to promise six here gets 5-3-3-2 hands into a bind. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted April 8, 2004 Report Share Posted April 8, 2004 also,in 2/1,does 1S-2D-2S show exactly 6 card ♠?One of the problems of 2/1 is an auction where both partners are unlimited. Most agree that you need a bid after 1♠-2♦ that shows you have a minimum opener, so partnerships have to agree whether this bid is either 2♠ or 2NT. So the former only promise 5 spades for 2♠, and the latter promise 6 spades for 2♠. I belong to the first camp so that I can keep my 2NT bids balanced, at the cost of not promising the sixth spade. Paul Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flame Posted April 8, 2004 Report Share Posted April 8, 2004 1M - 2c- 2M will have 6 card suit or 5 card and 4OM1M - 2d -2M can also be 5M and 4Cso its not exactly the same and after the 2c you are more sure of p having a 6 card suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted April 9, 2004 Report Share Posted April 9, 2004 Welcome, myfish. Hope you post here more often. :-) Since the question is about SAYC, maybe you should check the SAYC Booklet found on the ACBL webpage (adobe PDF document), the link is.... sayc_booklet.pdf There they describe the 2♠ rebid as one of a group of minimum hands (13-16hcp). In the booklet, they don't assign a number of ♠'s so this would be a partnership agreement. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted April 9, 2004 Report Share Posted April 9, 2004 Yes there is a difference:After 1♠-2♦-? what do you bid with AKJxx-x-xxx-KQxx? 2♠, so this can be from a 5 card. Similar thing can happen after 1♠-2♥-? This is, because a 3m rebid would show extra strength which we don't have...After 1♠-2♣-? you don't get this problem, because with any 5-4 distribution you can show it by bidding 2♦ or 2♥, or supporting partner to 3♣. So 1♠-2♣-2♠ always shows a 6+ card ♠. In 2/1, this is standard minimum with a 5 card ♠, since you can stay low and don't have to describe your hand immediatly. Strength is more important in that case apparently (I didn't invent the system ;) ) Quote from Flame: "1M - 2c- 2M will have 6 card suit or 5 card and 4OM" This is only possible when you have 5♥ and 4♠, since with 5♠ and 4♥ you'll rebid 2♥ ofcourse. Here again, showing your 4 card ♠ would be a reverse, which again shows extra strength. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts