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You are only playing transfer advances after partner's overcall at the 1-level.

Ie. 1C-1H-P-__

1D-1S-P-__

 

You also play 2NT by advancer as natural and invitational. How do people handle GF balanced hands? (presumably with only 2card support for partner)

Is it just the same thing as if you weren't playing transfer advances, so like rather than cue opponent's suit, you transfer to partner's suit...then bid 2NT?

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Generally, from Rubens:-

 

1. Bids below the cue bid are natural and forcing by an unpassed hand - hence in your first example after (1C) 1H (P) ?

1S is natural and forcing with 4+ cards in the suit (but willing to be raised on 3 cards by overcaller)

 

2. Bids from the cue bid up are transfers

 

My experience is to select a robust 4 card suit - bid it and then if partenr does not bid NT, or some convenient bid revert to a cue (since with no stop and only doubleton support you can stand anything else) when you have a bal GF lacking stop..

 

regards

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GF balanced hand with no fit? Do I have a 28 count so I'm worried about slam? :) I don't think it's a problem so big it needs a very detailed specific sequence... Just bid 3NT.

No, you're not worried about slam...you're worried about finding the right strain. 3NT kills a lot of space. And if we do have 28 count combined slam can easily be on if we have a fit somewhere (knowing where all the high cards are) etc.

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The point is that you need a very good 16 count to force to game opposite your partner's 1 level overcall especially if you have no fit for him and no suit of your own. You can survive this infrequent hand type by lying somehow.
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