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jdonn

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JTx

Ax

AJ8xxx

Ax

 

1NT 2

2 3

?

 

Yes you opened 1NT, too bad. 3 is smolen so four spades, five(+?) hearts. Both vul at imps if it matters. Oops, almost forgot partner is a passed hand, you are 3rd seat.

 

3NT, 4, or 4?

4

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Well, first off I think the 1N opening was at least OK - I do it on 6m322 shapes with something in each of the short suits - though this one, ace rich as it is, seems more oriented to a suit contract.

 

As for what to do now - who knows. 3N, 4, 4 could all be right. Even 5 and, for all I know, 3 may be our last making spot - so regardless of whether someone thinks 3 is forcing, pass could be the best call. Or, even 4 may be our last making spot. Horrible decision.

 

Nick

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I will attempt the 4-3 spade fit , I can sit and watch. 3N may be ok, but also may be horrible even when partner is 4-5-2-2 , after all this D suit is not exactly running is it even should partner hold a D honor of value like the Q the C position is weak and quite possibly I will not have 9 top tricks.
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I like 4 for a couple reasons.

 

The simplest being that it maximizes the value of our hand for covering partners losers with As and ruffing his long suits with trump. It looks like we're going to make this opposite AQxx Kxxxx blah blah. I hope they don't lead a trump (K on lead?)

 

I don't like 3NT at all. Please don't bid like this in China, Roger. :huh: Two reasons for this:

 

1) They will attack clubs

2) The diamonds won't set up fast enough. unless partner has Kx and the Q is onside.

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3N wtp for me because when I simulate this giving responder an unlimited hand (9+),

3N works out better than 4M approx. 25 percent of the time.

 

If you prefer answers based on relevant facts only, then 4H is better than 3N and 4S approx. 20 percent of the time. For example, 4H is better than 3N on all of these hands:

 

Q973.QJ654.T.KQ5

A654.KQT95.T9.J5

AQ97.KJ643.9.543

KQ65.KQT76.53.76

KQ74.Q8654.3.K84

 

But won't responder always bid on over 3N when he has concentration of values in the majors (hands 2,3 and 4)?

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If partner would understand 4 as natural, or even if he would treat it as choice of major-suit games, I would bid that. Since he is a passed hand, it is possible that he will not think I am making a slam try. But if there is some chance that he will not understand what I am doing, I will bid 4 and hope for the best.

 

It strikes me that facing a passed hand, it makes some sort of sense to jump to 3 over Stayman with this kind of hand (especially with 2-2 in the majors).

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One thing that is boging me is that we most of the time he will be 4513 (much more often than 4522 or 4513) and at 3Nt we will probably get a club lead.

 

If we have 2 club stoppers we need 6M tricks. But if we can make 6M tricks its very likely 4M is as good a spot than 3Nt. However the case where we only got 1 club stopper 4M is much better. Still i think a sim is needed before ill settle for 4D (COG)

 

Edited

 

Also what would transfer followed by 2S meant ? We are passed hand so we can make some COG move that will not be interpreted as slam tries.

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