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onoway

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[hv=d=s&v=e&n=s543ha654d7cajt72&w=sakq762hd96432c43&e=sjhkqjt92dakqj5c5&s=st98h873dt8ckq986]399|300|Scoring: IMP

what is the right way to bid this? Checking the traveller, bids were all over the place.

If bidding goes P 2 P then what? This was in a BIL tourney so 2NT asking for a feature didn't work very well (got left in it for -1 on a lead)

[/hv]

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OK. Regardless of if you are playing feature.

 

2S-2N-

4D (I am 6-5 with a self sufficient suit)-4N

6D (1 with a void)-P

And if east had x AKQxxx KQJTx x, how would the bidding be any different? That is aside from the fact that west has way too much playing strength to open 2.

 

This is simply too hard of a slam to bid with any realistic auction, IMO. To get close, west would have to open 1, and when east responds in hearts then west will never show that void.

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FWIW, I'm bidding 3 with the east hand over 2. Still not getting there. In addition to the hoped-for ace of spades (no guarantee), the weak-2 bidder has to cover another first round control. But if someone's going to go nuts, it might as well happen over:

 

2-3

4

 

 

Other than that, best chance is East opens out of turn and South accepts it.

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The west hand is not a 2 opener to me, even playing very constructive weak twos. It's either a 1 (preferrably) or a 3 opener.

 

Even after 1 it's hard to see any sane auction getting to 6, without some real gambling and luck involved.

 

The only possibility is:

1 - 2

2 - 3

4

Where 4 shows a void on the way to 5. I don't think many will have an explicit agreement here, and without it, you just can't pull that trick.

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Hi,

 

I may pass the West hand, the hand is way too strong

for a weak two, ... and to open 3S, even for such a

opening the hand is quite strong, even if you take the

vulnerability into account, and you may go heavily against

the field.

The hand is too weak to open 1S (at least for us) or simply

say the hand is not suitable for an 1S opening.

 

Assuming the opponents dont come in, which is not likely

with their actual holding, the bidding may go

 

Pass .. - 1H

1S ..... - 3D (1)

4D (2) - .... (3)

 

(1) I think, even I would force to game, with this one

(2) max. hand, slam interst

(3) soemhow you will reach 6D

 

The decision to pass would have been a succesful decision

this time, but it can backfire.

The only safety is, that you hold the spades, and that you

always can come in later.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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  • 2 weeks later...
Dealer: South
Vul: E/W
Scoring: IMP
543
A654
7
AJT72
AKQ762
[space]
96432
43
J
KQJT92
AKQJ5
5
T98
873
T8
KQ986
what is the right way to bid this? Checking the traveller,  bids were all over the place.

If bidding goes P  2  P then what? This was in a BIL tourney so 2NT asking for a feature didn't work very well  (got left in it for -1 on a lead)

 

IMO The West hand is worth a 1 opener but I still don't see how to bid the slam. At pairs, you would be happy to play in 4, but the bidding is more likely to go...

1-2

2-3

4-4N

5-P

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If this is a matchpoint event, then diamonds are never in the picture.

 

Over a 2 opening, I would bid 4. And if the auction got complicated, West should just bid 4.

 

Except for 6, either major suit game should beat or tie any pair in diamonds.

 

At IMPs, I can understand getting to 5, although game in either major still makes a lot of sense. It is unlikely that any pair would bid the slam except by accident.

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ZAR says this is a 1 spade opener. so...

 

1 - 2

2 - 3

5? - 6?

 

Is the leap to 5 diamonds warranted? Not sure. I would think East has 4 or more diamonds a very large % of the time. You have more than an opening (ZAR) hand after finding the diamond fit. So I think 5 diamonds is quite reasonable and will make a good % of the time. Once West bids 5, I think East is wimpy to not bid 6.

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