shevek Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 [hv=d=n&v=b&s=sjt965hq76dc86543]133|100|Scoring: IMP1C* (2D*) ?[/hv] 1♣ is 16+ any, 2♦ natural (1♦ would be something else) Anyway, do you bid 2♠a) if it's not forcingb) if it's forcingc) if it's game-forcing? Do you double? How do you play 2♠? Why? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
effervesce Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 I'd bid 2♠ if non-forcing. If it's forcing or game-forcing, I prefer double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EarlPurple Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 I don't particularly like Dbl which is too likely to get a bad penalty pass by partner. I'd prefer to be able to pass and do something when partner re-opens, although game is likely if partner has a 4-card spade fit and no wasted values (i.e. nothing in diamonds except perhaps 4 small). There is however no reason why partner should have 4 spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rbforster Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 I play all actions as game forcing at this level, and wouldn't bid 2♠ under those conditions. At all red, the opps may not be happy to play in 2♦ if my partner has lots of them. If partner doesn't have extra strength, we may not miss a game. If he does have extra strength, he'll have to act if 2♦ passes back to him (maybe with 2N given his likely diamond length?), in which case we can transfer and/or bid our spades then. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 It seems obvious that bad things can happen no matter what I do. Most of the time, partner will have something like 16-18 balanced. If he has this hand, we might have game if he has virtually nothing in diamonds, but usually we will not have game. Of course, we might make 2♠, but if 2♠ is forcing I see no way to get there (I don't expect partner to balance with 16-18 flat unless he has ♦xx, which is unlikely). So assuming that 2♠ is forcing, I would pass. This should work well if partner finds a balancing call, and will get us a nice plus if partner has a strong diamond holding. If it passes out we have probably lost a partscore swing, but almost certainly not a game swing. It seems obvious to bid 2♠ if it is not forcing. In my preferred methods, 2♥ is a transfer to spades and this is what I would bid (basically this gets us both the NF and forcing meanings; admittedly it is usually about 5+ hcp but I am willing to push slightly on these cards). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EarlPurple Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 One option in this situation is to treat the situation like an overcall of a strong 1NT and use Rubensohl-style responses, i.e. 2♠ is competitive and 2♥ would also be competitive. 2NT starts a relay sequence and other bids at the 3-level are usually stronger and are transfer bids. As partner will often not have a balanced 16-18 there must be also a way for partner to show this by breaking the transfers, either to show a fit or to show a suit of his own. Partner may have a strong hand with hearts and that may well be your place to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 I'm passing. Doesn't matter to me whether 2♠ is forcing or nonforcing. If partner passes, I suspect we dodged a bullet. If he doubles (or bids NT), then I'm bidding spades. If he bids a suit, I'm in heaven. It's clubs I'm afraid of missing. If I bid 2♠, and partner has bad spades (like a singleton), partner may insist on no trump when we do much better in clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 If you played 2S as NF this seems like the perfect hand for it, but I would never play such a convention. If it is F1 or GF I would just pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted August 28, 2008 Report Share Posted August 28, 2008 Hi, not playing strong club: a) sure, would I bid 2S after a 1NT opener got overcalled with 2D? yes.B) why?c) see B) Abstain, but I play NMF, so most likey a), not sure how theywork, I guess transfer responses is most likely the way to go,your side has to start bidding their suits at some point in time. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 29, 2008 Report Share Posted August 29, 2008 I pass in ALL cases. I have a partner, and my S are weak. If pd can reopen with a double I am well placed; if she can't, then I didn't want to bid on this hand anyway. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EarlPurple Posted August 29, 2008 Report Share Posted August 29, 2008 The danger of passing is that the next hand will bounce up the level and it will then be harder to enter the auction. If there is a bid available that shows shape but not values then it would be ideal. 2NT might be used as such a bid here. Unlikely you'd need it as natural, so it is useful as part of a good/bad sequence (2NT shows the bad hand whilst 3-level bids show values). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
akhare Posted August 29, 2008 Report Share Posted August 29, 2008 2♠ would be non-forcing in our methods, but this hands screams P. The losing case might when pard has no biddable suit and can't re-open with X because of shortness in one of the black suits, but c'est-la-bridge... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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