Jump to content

Act now?


catch22

Recommended Posts

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far

(P)-P-(1)-X

(2)-P-(P)-?

 

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having bid 1NT on the previous round I now have an easy and obvious pass.

 

If I doubled the previous round it was apparently because I thought my hand was too strong for 1NT, so I have to bid 2NT now.

 

If someone bid 2C on the previous round, and was then unavoidably called away and I had to take over, I would now pass 2S.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-?  - This has been the auction so far

(P)-P-(1)-X

(2)-P-(P)-?

 

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having started with a transfer for clubs, I consider myself a 2 bidder.

 

Now I bid 2nt. I dont like it, but at least it describes my hand. Partner didn't double 2, so a minor-runout is not unlikely, and will be welcomed. I like taking the active risk much better than taking the passive. Partner need nothing more than QJXX and the Q, for game to be on.

 

Had I bid 1nt, I would have passed now, and liked it even less.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-?  - This has been the auction so far

(P)-P-(1)-X

(2)-P-(P)-?

 

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having bid 2 before, I'd bid 2NT now. I think if I'd started with 1NT then pass now is obvious.

That shows a 4 card side suit, like 4-6 in the minors. Try again...

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Suppose the original hand had been:

 

AK54

4

KQ5

AKT86

 

How would you have bid it?

 

I'm trusting that my partner, looking at his spade shortness and the auction, will be able to figure out that I'm three suited (not 2), and therefore I won't be as extreme as 6-4. I think he'll figure me for a good 3-1-4-5 hand, which is about as good as I can describe on this auction, unfortunately.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

What does an example hand have to do with anything?

I think there are lots of 3-suited hands where most people, including you, would bid 2 followed by 2NT even though you aren't 4-6. I think your rule is generally correct, the same way that 1NT overcalls are balanced or negative doubles show 4 cards in the other major are generally correct. I'm sure you can come up with your own, better, examples, so you're right that I shouldn't have bothered.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

No I don't think Josh would bid 2 followed by 2N with this hand.

It's probably a bad example. Most of my examples are bad.

 

A better thing for me to have said would have been "I think that there are a lot of 4-5 hands that have to be bid by going 2 followed by 2NT, and with this 3-5 hand the best I can do is lie a bit about my diamond length. The other choice is to lie about shape and strength with a 1NT bid, and while that might be the better thing to do, I'm not at all convinced".

Link to comment
Share on other sites

When did I say it shows 4-6? I said that is one example. It does show a 4 card side suit, which you don't have.

I misunderstood, sorry.

 

I agree it shows a 4 card side suit. I don't think any auction does this hand justice- 1NT followed by pass doesn't show the potential for this hand in 5 of a minor, and 2 followed by 2NT shows a longer diamond suit than I have. What can you do?

 

I'll shut up for now. Hopefully Edmunte will come by to tell us his rebid. :)

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...