catch22 Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 [hv=d=w&v=b&s=sak42hadkj5ckt765]133|100|Scoring: IMP(P)-P-(1S)-?[/hv] What do you bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 Heavy 1N overcall for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 1NT ok. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 Yeah, I'll overcall 1NT too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 Huh, I'd have said 2♣. Shows what I know. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hatchett Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 I'll join the 1NTers. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 yep, obvious 1N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted August 18, 2008 Report Share Posted August 18, 2008 Obvious 1nt. (Transfer to clubs naturally.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 Agree with 1NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edmunte1 Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 2♣ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
catch22 Posted August 19, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 If you bid 1NT or 2♣ then the auction will continue (2♠)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far (P)-P-(1♠)-X(2♠)-P-(P)-? What would the 1NT and 2♣ bidders bid now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 After I bid 1N, I pass of course. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 If you bid 1NT or 2♣ then the auction will continue (2♠)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far (P)-P-(1♠)-X(2♠)-P-(P)-? What would the 1NT and 2♣ bidders bid now? Having bid 1NT on the previous round I now have an easy and obvious pass. If I doubled the previous round it was apparently because I thought my hand was too strong for 1NT, so I have to bid 2NT now. If someone bid 2C on the previous round, and was then unavoidably called away and I had to take over, I would now pass 2S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 If you bid 1NT or 2♣ then the auction will continue (2♠)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far (P)-P-(1♠)-X(2♠)-P-(P)-? What would the 1NT and 2♣ bidders bid now?Having started with a transfer for clubs, I consider myself a 2♣ bidder. Now I bid 2nt. I dont like it, but at least it describes my hand. Partner didn't double 2♠, so a minor-runout is not unlikely, and will be welcomed. I like taking the active risk much better than taking the passive. Partner need nothing more than ♣QJXX and the ♦Q, for game to be on. Had I bid 1nt, I would have passed now, and liked it even less. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 If you bid 1NT or 2♣ then the auction will continue (2♠)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far (P)-P-(1♠)-X(2♠)-P-(P)-? What would the 1NT and 2♣ bidders bid now? Having bid 2♣ before, I'd bid 2NT now. I think if I'd started with 1NT then pass now is obvious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 If you bid 1NT or 2♣ then the auction will continue (2♠)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far (P)-P-(1♠)-X(2♠)-P-(P)-? What would the 1NT and 2♣ bidders bid now? Having bid 2♣ before, I'd bid 2NT now. I think if I'd started with 1NT then pass now is obvious. That shows a 4 card side suit, like 4-6 in the minors. Try again... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
catch22 Posted August 19, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 If I doubled the previous round it was apparently because I thought my hand was too strong for 1NT, so I have to bid 2NT now.Just to be clear the X in the auction was there to represent either a 1NT or a 2C bid. OK it was a really duff choice of symbol. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 Suppose the original hand had been: AK544KQ5AKT86 How would you have bid it? I'm trusting that my partner, looking at his spade shortness and the auction, will be able to figure out that I'm three suited (not 2), and therefore I won't be as extreme as 6-4. I think he'll figure me for a good 3-1-4-5 hand, which is about as good as I can describe on this auction, unfortunately. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 Suppose the original hand had been: AK544KQ5AKT86 How would you have bid it? Who cares? What does an example hand have to do with anything? I'm telling you what the bid means! Don't believe me for all I care. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 What does an example hand have to do with anything? I think there are lots of 3-suited hands where most people, including you, would bid 2♣ followed by 2NT even though you aren't 4-6. I think your rule is generally correct, the same way that 1NT overcalls are balanced or negative doubles show 4 cards in the other major are generally correct. I'm sure you can come up with your own, better, examples, so you're right that I shouldn't have bothered. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 No I don't think Josh would bid 2♣ followed by 2N with this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 No I don't think Josh would bid 2♣ followed by 2N with this hand. It's probably a bad example. Most of my examples are bad. A better thing for me to have said would have been "I think that there are a lot of 4-5 hands that have to be bid by going 2♣ followed by 2NT, and with this 3-5 hand the best I can do is lie a bit about my diamond length. The other choice is to lie about shape and strength with a 1NT bid, and while that might be the better thing to do, I'm not at all convinced". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 When did I say it shows 4-6? I said that is one example. It does show a 4 card side suit, which you don't have. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 When did I say it shows 4-6? I said that is one example. It does show a 4 card side suit, which you don't have. Just give up Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 19, 2008 Report Share Posted August 19, 2008 When did I say it shows 4-6? I said that is one example. It does show a 4 card side suit, which you don't have. I misunderstood, sorry. I agree it shows a 4 card side suit. I don't think any auction does this hand justice- 1NT followed by pass doesn't show the potential for this hand in 5 of a minor, and 2♣ followed by 2NT shows a longer diamond suit than I have. What can you do? I'll shut up for now. Hopefully Edmunte will come by to tell us his rebid. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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