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Bid question?


A2003

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2NT seems really normal to me, if partner has a singleton club he won't pass anyway.

lol, the second part of this sentence is blatantly false, agree with the first part though.

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For me a 2 over 1 isnt forcing so 2C is a general force up to 2nt and its the only bid for me. I see no reason to lose the first 5/6 tricks in 2Nt/3Nt when you have a much safer alternative.

 

(1C)---1S-----(P)------2C

(P)-----2S-----(P)------2Nt isnt forcing.

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I don't like 2NT. It isn't forcing. Partner has 8-16 HCP, so I can expect him to bid further with 12/13-16, but not with less.

 

As ugly as it looks, 2 is the only meaningful bid, followed by 2NT. Now partner will bid 3NT if his hand is in the upper two thirds of his range, not just the upper half :P

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2 if that is a generic strong bid, 2 if it's forcing, otherwise 2. I think if a 2/1 is NF you need 2 as a generic force. If p is 5332 and minimum he will rebid 2 over 2. I can then try 2NT.

 

I am not so fond of a direct 2NT. P will often pass when we belong in diamonds or hearts.

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<snip>

As ugly as it looks, 2 is the only meaningful bid,

... <snip>

Just to get my post count up, why looks 2C ugly?

 

We learn, if partner is dead min, or has something to spare,

we learn if he has a 4 card side suit, we may even learn, he

has a 6 carder, beside the last point, we learn all those listed

things below 2NT.

 

I agree, the cue would look ugly, if clubs would be exchanged

with hearts, i.e. they opened 1H, or if partner overcalled

1D, since we are burning the whole 2 level, but they opened

1C, and partner overcalled 1S.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: If partner showes a dead min. with 2S, I will pass, but this

may be partnership depend, if partner is dead min, we will struggle

in 2S and in 2NT, and I prefer, that in this case partner plays his

own garbage.

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