Lobowolf Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 1C - 1S - X - P Does a 2D rebid by opener here promise a full reverse? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 YES Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lobowolf Posted August 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 That's my answer, too, but a surprising number of very good players differed when I had it as a panel problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 Depends on your agreement. I believe my partner told me we play this one as NF and 1C-(2S)-Dbl-(p)-3D as forcing. If I remember correctly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 Not this one again! FWIW pre forums I believed that 2D should not be a reverse but after being a member of the forums and seeing this question 100 times I think it should be a reverse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 Maybe it made sense to have it not show extras back in the days that double showed both unbid suits, but I think NF is HORRIBLE the way double is now played. Partner can be 5422 you know, not to mention if you really have extra strength and 2♦ is nf you have to waste a level to show it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lobowolf Posted August 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 I think the most relevant questions are raised by distinguishing the auction from one in which you open 1C, and partner responds 1H (since that's in essence what he's done). If you DON'T have a reverse, then why didn't you open 1D? There seem to be two main possibilities - you intended to rebid 2C, perhaps with 5 good clubs and 4 bad diamonds, or you intended to rebid 1NT. I don't rebid 1NT with a singleton in the hand, so the only situation that really calls this into question is if I were 2-2-4-5 and opened 1C intending to rebid 1NT; then, maybe the 1S bid stops my 1NT rebid because I don't have a spade card. That's the only situation, and it's quite a parlay. If I don't have enough to revese, I open 4-5 in the minors hands 1D. Since in the posted hand, the opening bid was 1C, I must have a reverse. If I AM 2-2-4-5 without a spade card, I'll get over my matchpoint-itis and open 1D followed by 2C, or I'll bite the bullet and rebid 1NT without a spade card. Because the other relevant point is...let's not forget there's a reason reverses promise extras... on the posted auction, if partner doesn't like diamonds, he has to go to the three level to get back to my first suit. Why am I doing that to partner if I don't have a reverse? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 Reverse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 No. As it is, the answer is heavily depend on the placeyou are living, scanning the answers above, I wouldsay most have North American background, and a player with such a background is more likely to answerthe question with yes, if you ask a player with a europeanbackground the most likely answer is No. The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. Xyou are playing. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ulven Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 ... if you ask a player with a europeanbackground the most likely answer is No. The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. Xyou are playing. Agree. I don't know anyone over here who plays this as a reverse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 ... if you ask a player with a europeanbackground the most likely answer is No. The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. Xyou are playing. Agree. I don't know anyone over here who plays this as a reverse. I know many, not too far away from Ulf, who do, myself included. In my book the negative double only focuses on hearts, not diamonds. Therefore it's a reverse. As if the bidding had gone 1♣ 1♠ 1♥ pass2♦ Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 I checked with Arend and I had it the wrong way around, 1C-(1S)-Dbl-(p)-2D is forcing but 1C-(2S)-Dbl-(p)-3D is not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 Definitely a reverse, as X means hearts for me, nothing about diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 YES I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines): xxxxAxQJxAQxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 1NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 YES I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines): xxxxAxQJxAQxx Clear 1NT. This doesn't show a stopper! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lobowolf Posted August 10, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 10, 2008 1NT here, as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 if you ask a player with a european background the most likely answer is No. It's a reverse in my part of Europe. I don't think you can generalise about bidding methods in a continent as heterogeneous as Europe. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 YES I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines): xxxxAxQJxAQxx 1NT definitely does not promise a stopper. What else can one bid on a balanced minimum with no stopper? Personally I bid 1NT even on xx Axx Kxx AQxxx though I'm fully aware 2♥ would be quite popular. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 if you ask a player with a european background the most likely answer is No. It's a reverse in my part of Europe. I don't think you can generalise about bidding methods in a continent as heterogeneous as Europe. .-) Rolands post already proved me wrong, although itcan be argued, that denmark does not belong to europe, at least they did not agree to ratify some central EU laws, ... if I think about it, the same holds true for Great Britain, do they really feel they belong to the continent? With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 it can be argued, that denmark does not belong to europe, That would be a rather chauvinistic argument, comparable to arguing that Canada is not part of North America. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 it can be argued, that denmark does not belong to europe, at least they did not agree to ratify some central EU laws, ... if I think about it, the same holds true for Great Britain, do they really feel they belong to the continent? Denmark certainly belongs to Europe. This should be uncontroversial, currency issues nonwithstanding. As for UK, people often make the distinction between "the continent" (to which they don't belong) and "Europe" (to which they do belong). It's true that British people rarely identify themselves as "Europeans", but this is true almost everywhere (even in Turkey the European sentiments seem to be fading). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ASkolnick Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 I would not play this as a reverse, but it depends what you play as a negative double. We play it as 2 places to play, focused on the major, so either H&C,H&D. Also, what do you open if you are 4-4 in the minors? If you always open 1C (Many people do), then how would you get to 2D to play or is this not possible? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lobowolf Posted August 11, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 I would not play this as a reverse, but it depends what you play as a negative double. We play it as 2 places to play, focused on the major, so either H&C,H&D. Also, what do you open if you are 4-4 in the minors? If you always open 1C (Many people do), then how would you get to 2D to play or is this not possible? I open 1♦ when 4-4 in the minors. If your negative double can show ♥ & ♣, then it seems to me that 2♦ should be a reverse; if partner doesn't have ♦, he's got to go to the 3-level to find a playable spot, which is the rationale for 2♦ being a reverse in the auction: 1♣-1♥;2♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted August 11, 2008 Report Share Posted August 11, 2008 We have (not surprisingly) had this discussion ate the Dutch StepBridge forum also. I think there was a small majority for forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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