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How do you play this one...


Lobowolf

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1C - 1S - X - P

 

Does a 2D rebid by opener here promise a full reverse?

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That's my answer, too, but a surprising number of very good players differed when I had it as a panel problem.
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Guest Jlall
Not this one again! FWIW pre forums I believed that 2D should not be a reverse but after being a member of the forums and seeing this question 100 times I think it should be a reverse.
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Maybe it made sense to have it not show extras back in the days that double showed both unbid suits, but I think NF is HORRIBLE the way double is now played. Partner can be 5422 you know, not to mention if you really have extra strength and 2 is nf you have to waste a level to show it.
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I think the most relevant questions are raised by distinguishing the auction from one in which you open 1C, and partner responds 1H (since that's in essence what he's done). If you DON'T have a reverse, then why didn't you open 1D? There seem to be two main possibilities - you intended to rebid 2C, perhaps with 5 good clubs and 4 bad diamonds, or you intended to rebid 1NT. I don't rebid 1NT with a singleton in the hand, so the only situation that really calls this into question is if I were 2-2-4-5 and opened 1C intending to rebid 1NT; then, maybe the 1S bid stops my 1NT rebid because I don't have a spade card.

 

That's the only situation, and it's quite a parlay. If I don't have enough to revese, I open 4-5 in the minors hands 1D. Since in the posted hand, the opening bid was 1C, I must have a reverse. If I AM 2-2-4-5 without a spade card, I'll get over my matchpoint-itis and open 1D followed by 2C, or I'll bite the bullet and rebid 1NT without a spade card. Because the other relevant point is...let's not forget there's a reason reverses promise extras... on the posted auction, if partner doesn't like diamonds, he has to go to the three level to get back to my first suit. Why am I doing that to partner if I don't have a reverse?

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No.

 

As it is, the answer is heavily depend on the place

you are living, scanning the answers above, I would

say most have North American background, and a

player with such a background is more likely to answer

the question with yes, if you ask a player with a european

background the most likely answer is No.

 

The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. X

you are playing.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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... if you ask a player with a european

background the most likely answer is No.

 

The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. X

you are playing.

Agree. I don't know anyone over here who plays this as a reverse.

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... if you ask a player with a european

background the most likely answer is No.

 

The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. X

you are playing.

Agree. I don't know anyone over here who plays this as a reverse.

I know many, not too far away from Ulf, who do, myself included. In my book the negative double only focuses on hearts, not diamonds. Therefore it's a reverse. As if the bidding had gone

 

1 1 1 pass

2

 

Roland

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Y

E

S

I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines):

 

xxxx

Ax

QJx

AQxx

1NT definitely does not promise a stopper. What else can one bid on a balanced minimum with no stopper? Personally I bid 1NT even on xx Axx Kxx AQxxx though I'm fully aware 2 would be quite popular.

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if you ask a player with a european background the most likely answer is No.

It's a reverse in my part of Europe. I don't think you can generalise about bidding methods in a continent as heterogeneous as Europe.

.-) Rolands post already proved me wrong, although it

can be argued, that denmark does not belong to europe,

at least they did not agree to ratify some central EU laws,

... if I think about it, the same holds true for Great Britain,

do they really feel they belong to the continent?

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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it can be argued, that denmark does not belong to europe,

at least they did not agree to ratify some central EU laws,

... if I think about it, the same holds true for Great Britain,

do they really feel they belong to the continent?

Denmark certainly belongs to Europe. This should be uncontroversial, currency issues nonwithstanding.

 

As for UK, people often make the distinction between "the continent" (to which they don't belong) and "Europe" (to which they do belong).

 

It's true that British people rarely identify themselves as "Europeans", but this is true almost everywhere (even in Turkey the European sentiments seem to be fading).

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I would not play this as a reverse, but it depends what you play as a negative double. We play it as 2 places to play, focused on the major, so either H&C,H&D.

 

Also, what do you open if you are 4-4 in the minors? If you always open 1C (Many people do), then how would you get to 2D to play or is this not possible?

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I would not play this as a reverse, but it depends what you play as a negative double. We play it as 2 places to play, focused on the major, so either H&C,H&D.

 

Also, what do you open if you are 4-4 in the minors? If you always open 1C (Many people do), then how would you get to 2D to play or is this not possible?

I open 1 when 4-4 in the minors. If your negative double can show & , then it seems to me that 2 should be a reverse; if partner doesn't have , he's got to go to the 3-level to find a playable spot, which is the rationale for 2 being a reverse in the auction:

 

1-1;

2

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