CSGibson Posted August 7, 2008 Report Share Posted August 7, 2008 [hv=d=e&v=n&s=sa432hkt83dqjt83c]133|100|Scoring: IMPS(P)-P-(1♣)-1♦,(P)-1♥-(1♠)-2♦,(2♠)-4♣-(P)-4♥,(4♠)-5♦-(5♠)-P,(P)-P-?[/hv] Explanation: you bid hearts instead of supporting diamonds on your 2nd turn because you had 4-4 in the majors and wanted to feel out partner's support. 4 clubs was ambigous, but is not going to be passed. Do you push to 6, double, or just pass this out? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimG Posted August 7, 2008 Report Share Posted August 7, 2008 I think I would have bid 5♠ the round before (instead of 5♦), so 6♦ now. I think partner must have a good hand for his 1♦ overcall and 2♦ freebid. x Axx AKxxxx xxx is enough for slam, consistent with the bidding (except he might have raised hearts) and near minimum. x Ax AKxxxx xxxx is enough for a grand, isn't it? I'd worry more about that than whether or not to bid on over 5♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 Dealer: East Vul: N/S Scoring: IMPS ♠ A432 ♥ KT83 ♦ QJT83 ♣ [space] (P)-P-(1♣-1♦,(P)-1♥-(1♠)-2♦,(2(sp))-4♣-(P)-4♥,(4♠)-5♦-(5♠-P,(P)-P-?Explanation: you bid hearts instead of supporting diamonds on your 2nd turn because you had 4-4 in the majors and wanted to feel out partner's support. 4 clubs was ambigous, but is not going to be passed. Do you push to 6, double, or just pass this out? IMO 6♦ = 10, _P = 8, _X = 7.Earlier, had your methods allowed, you might have splintered in ♣ and then cue-bid ♠, so that partner could delude himself into imagining himself to be part of the decision process :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted August 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 I was just curious. I went to 6 diamonds, which was insta-doubled on my left, and which is cold (Partner has 6 diamonds to the AK, the J9x of hearts, and a stiff spade, and the Q of hearts is in the slot). Our teammates got to 6 clubs, undoubled, and were allowed to make on misdefense, for a double slam swing. First time for that for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimG Posted August 8, 2008 Report Share Posted August 8, 2008 I was just curious. I went to 6 diamonds, which was insta-doubled on my left, and which is cold (Partner has 6 diamonds to the AK, the J9x of hearts, and a stiff spade, and the Q of hearts is in the slot). Our teammates got to 6 clubs, undoubled, and were allowed to make on misdefense, for a double slam swing. First time for that for me. Your partner overcalled 1♦ with x J9x AKxxxx xxx and then freely bid 2♦? I guess there were some club honors in the mix. It is good that you were on the same page regarding 4♥. Undiscussed, I would have expected 4♣ to set diamonds as trumps, making the 4♥ bid a control bid. An agreement that is sometimes useful in this type of situation is that a first cue-bid is never made in a major suit that partner bid naturally (or otherwise showed length in). With this agreement in place, the 4♥ bid in your auction would indeed have been an offer to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted August 9, 2008 Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 <!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> East </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> N/S </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> IMPS </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> A432 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> KT83 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> QJT83 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> (P)-P-(1♣)-1♦,(P)-1♥-(1♠)-2♦,(2♠)-4♣-(P)-4♥,(4♠)-5♦-(5♠)-P,(P)-P-? </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end --> Explanation: you bid hearts instead of supporting diamonds on your 2nd turn because you had 4-4 in the majors and wanted to feel out partner's support. 4 clubs was ambigous, but is not going to be passed. Do you push to 6, double, or just pass this out? As a passed hand I really prefer just bidding 4c over 1d. Now partner can bid Kickback or cue or place the contract.Option two is too open 1d with this hand I guess. edit in reading the posts I see partner has nothing, not sure why they did not bid 2d over one club with zero defense and me being a passed hand.X...J9x....Akxxxx...xxx? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted August 9, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 9, 2008 Partner had x J9x AKxxxx Jxx. I don't know why partner decided not to bid 2 diamonds over 1 club, but that is what happened. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jonottawa Posted August 10, 2008 Report Share Posted August 10, 2008 Looks like I've already passed it out. Don't like the initial pass. Whole auction strikes of masterminding (don't open opening hand, don't show support, sign off in game and then bid slam.) Glad it worked out for you and your partner (who exhibits many of the same symptoms.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 10, 2008 Report Share Posted August 10, 2008 Partner had x J9x AKxxxx Jxx. I don't know why partner decided not to bid 2 diamonds over 1 club, but that is what happened. I think your partners bidding was fine assuming your agreement is 1H will often be with a 4 card suit. Overcalling 2D red/white at imps is very rich with such a poor hand, I think 1 is really normal, then competing after partner has shown some values and some hearts is also normal. Maybe double in this auction should be support (I usually play 1H as almost always 5+ so I don't know). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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