kgr Posted August 2, 2008 Report Share Posted August 2, 2008 [hv=d=w&v=n&s=sak642ht83dxck953]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv](1♦)-2♣-(p)-??- - Your agreements:2♦: mixed raise. 2♠: Not forcing, but promises something.3♣: preemptive Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 2, 2008 Report Share Posted August 2, 2008 3S fit jump? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted August 2, 2008 Report Share Posted August 2, 2008 What would 3♠ be - natural and forcing? (Fit jump is possible.) Personally I strongly prefer transfers here, and would bid 2♥, planning to support clubs later, if needed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted August 2, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 2, 2008 3S fit jump? This problem was presented to me by another pair. I'm not sure that they play 3♠ fit jump. ..Suppose you don't and also no transfers....BTW: if you play 3♠ fit jump, I guess it is only forcing till 4♣? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted August 3, 2008 Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 BTW: if you play 3♠ fit jump, I guess it is only forcing till 4♣? Yes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 3, 2008 Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 I would bid 2D then bid spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted August 3, 2008 Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 I would bid 2D then bid spades. Yeah, with the somewhat lacking agreements given in the OP, so would I. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted August 3, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 I would bid 2D then bid spades. It means you consider this hand as a GF hand after partner overcalled in ♣'s?You will bid 4♠ in following cases?: (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦(3♦)-p-(4♦)-? (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦(3♦)-4♣-(p)-? ...Not 5♠ I gues:(1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦(4♦)-p-(5♦)-? Thanks,koen Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 3, 2008 Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 I would bid 2D then bid spades. It means you consider this hand as a GF hand after partner overcalled in ♣'s?You will bid 4♠ in following cases?: (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦(3♦)-p-(4♦)-? (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦(3♦)-4♣-(p)-? ...Not 5♠ I gues:(1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦(4♦)-p-(5♦)-? Thanks,koen Yes I definitely consider this hand a GF. There might well be a slam, and we could belong in either black strain. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted August 3, 2008 Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 I find it tough to know what to play here. transfers are nice but they often wrongside the contract. As for playing 2M as forcing or not forcing i think forcing is slightly best but im not sure. Anyway this is clearly a GF hand so if 2S isnt forcing you have to make a FJS or bid 2D followed by spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 3, 2008 Report Share Posted August 3, 2008 Agree with 2D first if 3S is not a fit jump. Bidding 2S has too many flaws (not forcing and it hides the excellent support). There is a good chance that we can bid 4S or lower next. If I was going to ignore spades (not that I want to) then I would splinter, that seems the most descriptive club raise. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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