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Simple cue bid q


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Is there a common meaning for responder cue bidding overcaller's suit in the first round of bidding, e.g.

 

 

1 1 2 ?

 

I play acol and don't recall seeing this type of sequence at acol tables, but have seen it played on boards elsewhere in bbo - curious as to what it means.

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Thanks Boris - I'm familiar with the UCB in response to partner's overcall, but hadn't seen it in response to an opening bid from p.

 

So how does this bid compare with a limit raise in acol, say 1 2 3 versus 1 2 3 both showing 10+ points and 4 card support? Is it the same idea of freeing up the natural bid to show a weak, pre-emptive type hand?

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One style is to play the cuebid as limit+ and let the jump raise be weak.

 

Another style is to let the cuebid be a game force and let the jump raise be a limit raise, as it would be without interference.

 

I think the first style is more common nowadays.

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Hi,

 

there is one big difference:

 

If we have opened, the UCB shows a fit, if we just overcalled,

the UCB just shows a fit if the hand, which made the UCB is

min. for the bid, i.e.

 

1H - (1S) - 2S (1)

 

(1) shows a fit

 

(1D) - 1H - (Pass) - 2D (2)

 

(2) shows either a inv.+ hand with fit or a arbitary

hand with game forcing values

 

The reason for the difference:

 

Change of suit after we opened is quite commoly played as forcing,

additionally you have a neg. X available, change of suit after we

overcalled is quite commoly played as forcing (depends a little where

you live) and you dont have a neg. X available.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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cue raises show fit and invitational or better values, and you dont have a FSJ or a splinter (or you do have one but are not good enough to force game).

 

It's good to play these since you can now play that jump raises are all pre-emptive.

 

When the opps double instead of overcall jump raises are still pre-emptive, and you use NT's to raise. (1NT simple raise, 2NT invitational etc) If you had a normal NT response, you can XX.

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