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The unbalanced 1D open


fromageGB

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I have read a number of times how some people play a 1D open is either a six card suit or shows a singleton elsewhere. This sounds interesting and I would like to know more.

 

The context is a 2/1 system, and you have no 5 card major and not the strength for 1NT. I assume that if 1D is either 6 card or a singleton elsewhere, then other hands open 1C. I am happy with that, as major fits are easily handled after a club open. But what happens after the 1D open?

 

I assume natural replies ?

1 1M 1NT = singleton in that major, diamond length unspecified?

1 1M 2 = 6 card diamonds?

1 1 1 = 5+ diamonds, 4 spades, single/void club??

1 2 - what does this mean?

Do you still open 1C if 3352 shape?

 

Please tell me more.

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Play openers second bid as transfer, starting with 1nt. (Thus 1-1, 1 still natural).

 

Downside:

 

1-1M

1NT

 

very often wrongsides nt-contracts.

 

Upsides:

 

Most everything else. (You'll be surprised.)

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1 1M 1NT = singleton in that major, diamond length unspecified?

1NT is probably more useful as an unlimited 3-card raise.

 

1 1 1 = 5+ diamonds, 4 spades, single/void club??

I would just play that as natural, including both 4153 and 4351 shapes. Otherwise you would often lose a spade fit

 

1 2 - what does this mean?

Inverted minors make as much sense here as they do in other systems.

 

Do you still open 1C if 3352 shape?

The way you described the system, you would open 1 not only with 3352 but also with 4252 or 2452. I've never heard of anyone doing that, but some partnerships (including one of mine) use 1 to promise an unbalanced or semibalanced hand, in which case a 3352 would open 1.

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I have been playing this way for years, with a fairly natural approach thereafter. There are nuances.

 

1-P-1-P-?

 

Bid 2 with six diamonds

Bid 2 with 5-5 minors, OR 1354 (unless a raise looks right)

Bid 1 with four spades

1NT, then, is specifically 3154; if Responder rebids hearts in any manner, suit is playable opposite a stiff.

 

1-P-1-P-?

 

Bid 2 with six diamonds

Bid 2 with 5-5 minors OR 3154 (unless a raise looks right)

Bid 1NT with 1444 or 1354; if Responder rebids spades in any manner, suit is playable opposite a stiff.

 

1-P-1M-P-2M-P-2M+1 asks for shortness/strength (mini-Mathe?)

E.g., 1-1-2-2: 2NT = short spade, 3 = short club, 3 = short club minimum; 3 = short spade minimum

 

Some diamond auction reads take feel and are hard to describe. One example, though, is that it just feels right, and usually is, to bid 1NT after 1-X-? with 2523 shape and 6-7 HCP.

 

Keep in mind that 1-P-1M-P-2M is an auction where Opener has already shown a stiff and 11-14 or so HCP's as a minimum. Tow principles. First, with a fit and known shortness, this is about 14-17; Responder should act accordingly when thinking about game tries. Second, Opener should not get excited about a hand that values up to about 16-17 because of the stiff -- Responder already knows that.

 

1 auction warnings. You may want some auctions like 1-overcall-P-P-2 and other similar auctions to not be reverses but rather natural (not a reverse in comp or if under pressure, for example). Also, Responder should use flexible competitive calls in comp, like more frequent unusual notrumps.

 

If 3352, Open 1. You would open 1NT with 3352 and another Queen, so WTP? :P

 

1-P-1-P-1 shows not four hearts, four spades, 4+ diamonds (if 4144). Could have 2-3 hearts if short in clubs, or 2-4 clubs if short in hearts.

 

Nice Additional, Related Treatments. 2 opening for 9+ cards in minors and tweener (14-16 HCP or so); ask if interested. Also 1-P-2 as an artificial GF denying five-card majors (could have both 4-vcard majors or just one or neither and need not have any clubs); Opener basically using transfers in rebid after this GF.

 

Note: After 1-P-1M-P-1NT, 2 should be to play.

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I've played something like this both in a 2/1-like system and in my current Polish Club system. (Link)

 

Requiring "6+ diamonds or a singleton" is rather unusual. More common is to allow 5422 hands as well - and IMO this is a superior idea. I would hate to have to open these hands 1.

 

Assuming that 1 : 1M , 1NT is natural I would like to open 1 on most 5332 hands as well. Particularly when the doubleton is weak (intending to raise if partner responds in one of our 3-card suits). In fact I don't think this is close - you would much rather be opening 1 on these hands compared to a "short" club.

 

Having said that, in my partnerships we don't open 1 on 5332. This is for two reasons:

 

1. We play opener's 1NT rebid as artificial. Basically we are sacrificing opening 1 on 5332 hands in order to get better continuations for the unbalanced hands. This is particularly important for us because we open 1 on 45 hands as well.

 

2. I'm playing Polish Club where the 1 opening is more descriptive than a "short" 1 opening, so I have more up-side to opening 1.

 

If you're playing more standard methods then neither of these would apply so I would much prefer to open 1 on 5332.

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5422 exceptions have nuance impacts that IMO can be handled fairly well. It helps a lot if 2 openings handle some types of minor two-suiters (prefer intermediate of about 13+ to 16-).

 

Opening 1 because of 5332 with five diamonds has too many costs, IMO, as to inference. I mean, it works OK, but you lose way more than you gain. That said, treating 5332 as a six-bagger is perfectly fine. If it looks like a six-bagger, open 1. But, don't open 1 just because you have five diamonds. Blech!

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I've been playing unbalanced 1 for four years now.

 

We routinely open 1 on 3352, I even once opened 1 on 3262 with JTxxxx. We don't treat all 5422 hands as balanced, but look at honour placement. So with 2452 (for example), we either treat the hand as balanced and open 1 or as unbalanced and open 1.

 

Originally we opened 3352 18-19 1, but later decided to put that hand into the 1 opener; thus 1-1M-1NT show this hand for us.

 

The main reason we decided to open as many hands as possible with 1, was our T-Walsh structure, which in our opinion gives us a head start in the auction. A side effect is that it's much easier to compete in our minor after our 1 opening than in normal better minor systems (basically, opener always have 5 (4441 is the only exception). The opposite is of course true for our ability to compete in clubs after a 1 opening - but not to the same degree.

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What's a nuance impact?

A nuance impact is an impact on the nuances.

 

If you are strict about opening 1 only with shortness, then partner can rely on shortness existing and conventional treatments arise therefrom.

 

I first played that shortness was 100% guaranteed. 1, therefore, could be opened with 2272. This leads to some funny stories but is a bit much.

 

A guarantee of shortness makes the most sense when specific auction types will occur. Dropping the shortness guarantee when Opener has a one-suited diamond hand (2272 and all 6322) has little impact effect on system; some, but very tolerable. Adding on minor 2254 (and possibly 2245) further weakens the approach but is very workable as well; as Skaeran observed and I agree, 2254's are handled per honor location. 54M22's can be included into 1 openings as a workable approach, especially the 4/5, with a little damage.

 

The major problem with 4M-5 inclusions is the 1-P-1M-P-2M has a gainer of Responder expecting shortness values. As I mentioned earlier, 11-14 HCP's means 14-17 dummy points when a stiff is known to exist. A solution I could easily live with would be to open 1 with sound 4M522 hands but 1 with trashy 4M522 hands, if that makes sense.

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Many thanks for the contributions, and the interesting ideas. Like Skaeran I play a system of transfer responses to 1 so am happy to have semi-balanced hands in that, and the Ken approach seems good for my methods. Thanks Ken for all the details. I shall have to develop this with my partner of course, but look forward to trying it out.

 

When I have given this some more thought I hope you don't mind if I come back with some follow up questions!

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