skjaeran Posted July 9, 2008 Report Share Posted July 9, 2008 ♠109x ♥109x ♦Ax ♣KxxxxPartner opens 1NT. 15-17, first seat. IMO 6♣=10, 4N=9, 5♣=5, 3N=4, 4♠=3 :)My simulations prove that slam is playable opposite as little as ♠ AKQ8 ♥ Ax ♦ xx ♣ Axxxx(Seriously, I do understand your point, Ken) Don't you think that the spade Queen is overkill, though? :blink: That's why he said 'as little as'... :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted July 9, 2008 Report Share Posted July 9, 2008 Pass Wtp. Even if the club suit run we might be short of tricks. If the hand is a bit stronger i would bid 2C and bid 3Nt over 2D knowing partner is likely to have 3C.Pass 2M. Wich will lead to a 4-3 that will be as good as 1Nt. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephen Tu Posted July 9, 2008 Report Share Posted July 9, 2008 Take this example hand opposite a strong NT opener: xxxxAKQxxxxxx But I bet you DD analysis shows that 3NT is going off the majority of the time. You lose? MY DD over 2000 hands shows making ~70% of the time with this hand. Original problem:makes DD only 19% of the time. So to me it's impossible to support blasting 3nt over passing & I highly doubt inviting works better either. I'll investigate the other approaches (inv 2nt, ken's play moysian/invite over 2d strategy) later when I have time. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted July 10, 2008 Report Share Posted July 10, 2008 ♠109x ♥109x ♦Ax ♣KxxxxPartner opens 1NT. 15-17, first seat. IMO 6♣=10, 4N=9, 5♣=5, 3N=4, 4♠=3 :)My simulations prove that slam is playable opposite as little as ♠ AKQ8 ♥ Ax ♦ xx ♣ Axxxx. (Seriously, I do understand your point, Ken) Don't you think that the spade Queen is overkill, though? :blink: Perhaps, on a good day, ♠ AQ8x ♥ Ax ♦ xx ♣ Axxxx :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted July 11, 2008 Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 On a small sample (50 deals), Ken's idea (2C-2D-3N):7 or less tricks=21, 8=13, 9=16 Normal invite and acceptance (1N-2N-3N sort of thing - or however you invite if indeed you can):7 or less tricks=12, 8=24, 9=14 Combination of the two (1N-2C-2D-2N-3N):7 or less tricks=9, 8=16, 9=25 Opener's acceptance criteria = 17HCP or 16 and at least one of the remaining 10s. The latter strategy would seem to be just about worth it at IMPs. At MP, given that there would be many unaccepted 2N deals that only ended up with 7 or less tricks, still not worth it. Nick P.S. Later edit. I should add, that even if you are playing IMPs with this hand, your stayman+invite would only really be worth it if partner's acceptance criteria are as high as better 16s and 17s. If pard's standard is lower, then you're obviously on dodgier ground. And even if pard's 3N acceptance criteria are as high as a better 16, 15s and poor 16s are probably commoner than 17s and better 16s - so even here the cost factor of having some failing 2N contracts needs to be weighted relatively heavily. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted July 11, 2008 Author Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 On a small sample (50 deals), Ken's idea (2C-2D-3N):7 or less tricks=21, 8=13, 9=16 Normal invite and acceptance (1N-2N-3N sort of thing - or however you invite if indeed you can):7 or less tricks=12, 8=24, 9=14 Combination of the two (1N-2C-2D-2N-3N):7 or less tricks=9, 8=16, 9=25 Opener's acceptance criteria = 17HCP or 16 and at least one of the remaining 10s. The latter strategy would seem to be just about worth it at IMPs. At MP, given that there would be many unaccepted 2N deals that only ended up with 7 or less tricks, still not worth it. Nick P.S. Later edit. I should add, that even if you are playing IMPs with this hand, your stayman+invite would only really be worth it if partner's acceptance criteria are as high as better 16s and 17s. If pard's standard is lower, then you're obviously on dodgier ground. And even if pard's 3N acceptance criteria are as high as a better 16, 15s and poor 16s are probably commoner than 17s and better 16s - so even here the cost factor of having some failing 2N contracts needs to be weighted relatively heavily. A few minor points of clarification. "Ken's idea" was actually "Ken's idea," but a different Ken, relayed through Ken to the forum. Also, the actual idea was the combination, it seems. Bid 2♣, planning to pass 2M but bid an invitational 2NT if Opener bids 2♦. To assess the merits of this idea, however, it seems that you need to determine the effect of three likely contracts: 2M as the end contract.3NT as the end contract, when Opener raises.2NT as the end contract, when Opener passes. You also want to determine the rate at which passing will yield competition, and what happens to that competition. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted July 11, 2008 Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 A few minor points of clarification. "Ken's idea" was actually "Ken's idea," but a different Ken, relayed through Ken to the forum. Yes. I realise :) "Ken's idea" was shorthand. Also, the actual idea was the combination, it seems. Bid 2♣, planning to pass 2M but bid an invitational 2NT if Opener bids 2♦. To assess the merits of this idea, however, it seems that you need to determine the effect of three likely contracts: 2M as the end contract.3NT as the end contract, when Opener raises.2NT as the end contract, when Opener passes. You also want to determine the rate at which passing will yield competition, and what happens to that competition. Yes. To do full justice to the analysis requires several hundreds of hands all where opener is simply 15-17 bal and then follow up what would happen on each one. Frankly I couldn't be bothered last night. What I posted was the nearest I could get to a proper analysis quickly. Nick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted July 11, 2008 Author Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 I know. I hate problems like that. The decision as to whether to pass or to bid 2♣ is not simply one of hand evaluation for a contemplated specific contract (like 1NT-P-3NT, good or bad). The possible continuations that I can imagine are actually wildly disparate. 1. Partner bids 2M and this ends the auction. In that event, we need to consider 4-card and 5-card fits, for starters, and how they play out in comparison to 1NT. However, we also need to consider (with me) that rare 2M contract with a 3-3 fit, as I or my partner might, on rare occasion, opt to bid 2M after Stayman with 3-2 in the majors, Honors in the fragment but xx in the doubleton. Plus, we need to consider whether 1NT would have bouth the contract, and, if not, what would have happened otherwise, and whether 2M buys the contract, as opponents sometimes balance after 2M (now at a presumably higher level). We might even see a rare 2♣X sequence, or even a 3♣ or 3♦ response from partner to Stayman. 2. If partner bids 2♦, it is not assured that this will stop competition either. RHO might double or bid here, strangely. 3. If we do bid 2NT after 2♦, the opponents doing something weird seems rare. However, partner may well introduce a six-card minor, which would be nice, albeit equally weird. But, in the event of a pass, we need to know what happens to 2NT, not just as a contract but against possible alternative contracts had the opponents intervened in the 1NT-P-P sequence. 4. 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pigpenz Posted July 11, 2008 Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 simulations shows that:80% 8 tricks24% 9 tricks if behind in a match and needed to gain might be a hand to push on Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted July 11, 2008 Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 simulations shows that:80% 8 tricks24% 9 tricks if behind in a match and needed to gain might be a hand to push on What about the other negative 4% of the time? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted July 11, 2008 Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 I know. I hate problems like that. You're getting a little too complicated for me Ken. There is the matter of what defence to 1N the opps are playing. To me, the only way to tackle this without getting hopelessly lost, would be to assume a head to head team of 4 match and that, at the other table, the auction is 1N passed out. Your team mates play a given. recognised and fairly aggressive defence and decline to use it - say something like Lionel as that allows all 44 shapes to be overcalled apart from 44 in the minors, plus the 5M and 6m shapes and (if you're up for it) to do so with not too much HCP - therefore the opp hands can be assumed to not be any of the types that the given defence would allow. Further, one assumes that one's team mate's defence covers all the hands our opps would overcall with at this table. While this assumption is not necessarily realistic, it simplifies the analysis as the option of us bidding normal Stayman obviously disappears if there is, say, a 2♥ overcall from RHO - so the question of what would happen if we chose the Stayman route to deal with this responding hand becomes academic. Maybe I'll give it some time later. Or maybe not! Nick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephen Tu Posted July 11, 2008 Report Share Posted July 11, 2008 DD results, 1000 deal samples: straight invite: (1nt-2nt), opener accepts 16+makes 3nt (game swing): 17.2%goes down in 2nt/3nt when 1nt makes (partial swing): 53.1%goes down in 2nt/3nt when 1nt still goes down (1-2 imps assume not x'd): 11.4%makes 2nt (push): 18.3% conclusion:passing >> inviting > blasting all forms of scoring. stayman, pass 2M, 2nt over 2d:makes 3nt: 6.6%makes 2nt (push): 5.7%goes down in 2/3NT when 1nt makes: 13.9%goes down in 2/3NT when 1nt down: 2.2% makes 2M when 1nt down: 4.4%down 2M when 1nt makes: 7.9%both 2M / 1NT make, M matchpoints better: 36.8%both 2M / 1NT make, NT matchpoints better: 19.1%both 2M / 1NT down, M down less: .7%both 2M / 1NT down, NT down less: .4%both 2M / 1NT down, same score: 2.3% conclusion:IMPS - clearly passing bestMP - might be worth taking shot for major partial if partner routinely opens 5cM in range with 1nt (the sim condition). Didn't do sim with more restrictive 5cM criteria, maybe later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted July 12, 2008 Report Share Posted July 12, 2008 DD results, 1000 deal samples:<snip> I see, you beat me to it. I started a deeper analysis but preliminary results show fairly similar figures. I do get a slightly higher frequency of our contracts making in general, but this may well be due to the restrictions I placed on the opp hands to simulate them being quiet in the auction - the upshot would be that opener holds 17 HCP slightly more frequently and the breaks would tend be a bit more benign on average. Even so, the times when we make 3N after 2C-2D-2N-3N do not appear to be enough to compensate for the times when 2N is off and also the cases where 2M fails but 1N makes (which appears to be more likely than 2M making and 1N failing) Nick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted July 12, 2008 Report Share Posted July 12, 2008 conclusion:passing >> inviting > blasting all forms of scoring. I don't think you can say this about single dummy though. 1N-2N I'm sure is better than 1N-3N, but most people have to bid 2C which will give away a lot of info about partner's hand, or bid 2S which will help them lead. I would bet in real life 3N is better than 2C then 2N since it's easier to make them misdefend on that auction. Also, most people (people I play with) accept even more aggressively than your sim suggests. This means that you don't end up in 2N when it is cold very often anyways, so I would hate to give away the info which might lead to 3N going down instead of making to cater to a possibility that doesn't happen that often. Anyways, agree with passing being a clear favorite. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pigpenz Posted July 12, 2008 Report Share Posted July 12, 2008 conclusion:passing >> inviting > blasting all forms of scoring. I don't think you can say this about single dummy though. 1N-2N I'm sure is better than 1N-3N, but most people have to bid 2C which will give away a lot of info about partner's hand, or bid 2S which will help them lead. I would bet in real life 3N is better than 2C then 2N since it's easier to make them misdefend on that auction. Also, most people (people I play with) accept even more aggressively than your sim suggests. This means that you don't end up in 2N when it is cold very often anyways, so I would hate to give away the info which might lead to 3N going down instead of making to cater to a possibility that doesn't happen that often. Anyways, agree with passing being a clear favorite. yes if you had 8hcp and those 109 combinations in 2 diferrent suits the best bid would be a direct 3nt. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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