firmit Posted July 7, 2008 Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 Got into a discussion about this hand - so why not a poll :) You holdK10KxxJxxxKJxx We use 15-17NT, 2 over 1 GF unless rebidpartner opens 1♦ promising 4+card suit and 11-19hp (12-14/18-19 nt). We use inverted minor where 1♦-2♦-3♦ and 1♦-2♦-2NT-3♦ is NF,(edited) and 1x - 1NT NF = 6-10 (even 11 with 3334)hp. Your response please - and comments Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted July 7, 2008 Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 1NT = 6-11? What is 2NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
firmit Posted July 7, 2008 Author Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 1NT = 6-11? What is 2NT? 2nt would be to strong for 1nt - the 11hp count in 1NT is mainly the 4333 hand with no good rebid.Thus - 2NT is 11-12hp NT. Sorry that was not clear - will add it to OP. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted July 7, 2008 Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 Well, if I have agreed to play inverted raises I really don't see why I wouldn't bid 2♦ :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted July 7, 2008 Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 2D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted July 7, 2008 Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 This hand is more NT-y than diam-y. Plus it has all those kings that need protecting. So if 2N=11-12 invitational and 2D=invitation+, I will bid 2N. If one is GF and the other not, I will choose the non-GF bid. Finally, if both 2D and 2N are GF, I will bid 1N and curse my system under my breath for not giving me an easy response with a common hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted July 7, 2008 Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 isn't this hand why I play inverted minors and 4+ diamond opener? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
firmit Posted July 7, 2008 Author Report Share Posted July 7, 2008 This hand is more NT-y than diam-y. Plus it has all those kings that need protecting. So if 2N=11-12 invitational and 2D=invitation+, I will bid 2N. If one is GF and the other not, I will choose the non-GF bid. Finally, if both 2D and 2N are GF, I will bid 1N and curse my system under my breath for not giving me an easy response with a common hand. Neither 2D nor 2NT is GF. 2D is RF - the NF sequences are in the OP. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2♦ WTP Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2♦ WTP ? I thought this was a 2N wtp! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2♦ WTP ? I thought this was a 2N wtp!OK, I better get rid of the WTP :) I just always make the inverted raise on these hands. I guess it is true that when partner rebids 2NT (F1) we are not sure whether or not we should be in game, but I feel that (1) because the game/invite decision is marginal, it does not matter so much, and (2) at least I have shown support this way - and sometimes partner does not rebid 2NT. Sometimes, I play that 2NT is 11-12 balanced with 4 card support, obviously I would bid 2NT under that agreement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 1NT for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2N. I'm balanced with the lead coming into one of my kings, and I even have some spots. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 1nt or 2nt ugg tough.......if partner opens junk...1nt..if sound 2nt.....I will let the inverted minors experts say why 2d is best. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2D. This is an inverted m bid. I have agreed to these, so why would I not make the obvious bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2NT. Dare I say wtp?? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2D. This is an inverted m bid. I have agreed to these, so why would I not make the obvious bid? because to some players it is not obvious.........pls explain. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 Does this hand look like NT or diamonds? If we belong in diamonds partner will not bid 3N over 2N and we can still get there. It's not like 2N precludes us from playing diamonds if it's right. We have every suit stopped, and would probably rather play it from our side (it's possible it's best to play from partner's side, but it's a bigger favorite that we should play it). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 This is not so clear in my opinion. Depending on partners opening style, I can imagine responding 1NT, 2NT or 2♦. My hand looks like declaring a NT contract, which points in the direction of 1NT or 2NT. Playing a light opening style I'd respond 1NT, playing a 'normal' opening style I'd respond 2NT. (I know there are people out there with a style where 3NT would be the correct response. I've never partnered any of them, though.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 Agree with 1N with a lot of people btw. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 Does this hand look like NT or diamonds? If we belong in diamonds partner will not bid 3N over 2N and we can still get there. It's not like 2N precludes us from playing diamonds if it's right. We have every suit stopped, and would probably rather play it from our side (it's possible it's best to play from partner's side, but it's a bigger favorite that we should play it). Yes but conversely just because you start with an inverted 2 bid does not mean you won't play NTs. If pd bids 2H or 2S you can still bid 2NT.If pd bids 3D, well you are probably in the right spot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2D. This is an inverted m bid. I have agreed to these, so why would I not make the obvious bid? because to some players it is not obvious.........pls explain. I don't know how you play inverted 2s, but whenever I played them, your failure to bid 2D when having 4+, (and no other suit), showed a totally square 3343 shape with hons outside the d suit. Else why are you playing inverted 2s? [There may be other considerations at MPs, but the form of the game was not mentioned]. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 2D. This is an inverted m bid. I have agreed to these, so why would I not make the obvious bid? because to some players it is not obvious.........pls explain. I don't know how you play inverted 2s, but whenever I played them, your failure to bid 2D when having 4+, (and no other suit), showed a totally square 3343 shape with hons outside the d suit. Else why are you playing inverted 2s? [There may be other considerations at MPs, but the form of the game was not mentioned]. ok I am no expert on inverted minors but is this not a square hand?1) balanced2) 90% of my hcp outside of D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArcLight Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 If you play Invereted Minors, then what does 2NT show, given the auction 1m - 2m? This is more of a general question, not necessarily limited to just this hand. When do you bid 2NT rather than 2m? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted July 8, 2008 Report Share Posted July 8, 2008 1N or 2N, depending on how light partner opens Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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