Me to take the blame?

[Wackojack]

♦[hv=d=w&v=e&w=saq74hjdakj10cakq9&e=sk92hq4d96532cj106]266|100|Scoring: IMP

Bidding:

2♦ (4♥) dbl pass

4NT pass pass pass

[/hv]

 

My partner (inexperienced compared with me) plays Benji Acol where 2♦ is the only game forcing bid. After the 4♥ overcall we were in uncharted territory. I think I take at least 90% of the blame for the silly contract. Here are my thought now:

 

1. My double was intended to show some scattered values. On reflection it probably ought to show a 4 card spade suit also and therefore was wrong.

 

2. Pass must be correct as surely partner will bid again. Looks like enough to raise partner's 5♣ or ♦ or key card after 4♠.

 

3. If partner doubles (assume a 4 card spade suit) I have a tough decision but would go for 5♦

 

4. If partner bids 4NT, I cant decide whether that would be natural to play or showing a minor 2 suiter

 

5. Having made the double after the 4♥ intervention, I must assume that the 4NT bid actually made by partner shows that she is declining a spade contract and is asking me to choose a minor suit. So I should bid 5♦, leaving it up to partner whether or not to raise to 6 or more.

 

Any thoughts or comments?

[paulg]

I think your question is really about standard agreements after your game-forcing opening is pre-empted.

 

To be honest I am not sure what 'expert standard' is (I'll wait for jlall and frances to tell me), but normally I'd play that pass shows values (with no biddable suit) and double shows about 0-4 points. The idea of using a high-level double to specifically show a 4-card spade suit seems a little restrictive to me and will leave you with too many problem hands.

 

Aiming for the best result possible, rather than the best possible result, is key ... as this hand illustrates. I can easily see this being played in 4♥-X.

 

Paul

[nige1]

[hv=d=w&v=e&w=saq74hjdakj10cakq9&e=sk92hq4d96532cj106]266|100|Scoring: IMP

Bidding:

2♦ (4♥) dbl pass

4NT pass pass pass

My partner (inexperienced compared with me) plays Benji Acol where 2♦ is the only game forcing bid.  After the 4♥ overcall we were in uncharted territory.  I think I take at least 90% of the blame for the silly contract.  Here are my thought now:

 

1. My double was intended to show some scattered values.  On reflection it probably ought to show a 4 card spade suit also and therefore was wrong.

 

2.  Pass must be correct as surely partner will bid again.  Looks like enough to raise partner's 5♣ or ♦ or key card after 4♠. 

 

3. If partner doubles (assume a 4 card spade suit) I have a tough decision but would go for 5♦

 

4. If partner bids 4NT, I cant decide whether that would be natural to play or showing a minor 2 suiter

 

5.  Having made the double after the 4♥ intervention, I must assume that the 4NT bid actually made by partner shows that she is declining a spade contract and is asking me to choose a minor suit.  So I should bid 5♦, leaving it up to partner whether or not to raise to 6 or more.

 

Any thoughts or comments?[/hv]

If partner's opener is strong but not game-forcing, then IMO

• _P = Negative or interested in penalties.
  
• _X = Values no long suit.
  
• Cue = Void or singleton.
  
• Other = Natural.
  

But if 2♦ is game-forcing then, IMO,

• _P = No long suit.
  
• _X = Penalty.