twcho Posted June 24, 2008 Report Share Posted June 24, 2008 At imp, red vs white, you hold Jxxxx QJ ATxx JxYour pd opened 1♦. You responded with 1!s. LHO overcalled 4♥ and pd raised to 4♠. The overcaller came in again with a double and his pd bid 5♥. What will you do now?Pd RHO You LHO1♦ Pass 1♠ 4♥4♠ Pass Pass XPass 5♥ ? Do you think that forcing pass applies at this situation? How about the other vulnerability situation? If forcing pass available, will you pass? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted June 24, 2008 Report Share Posted June 24, 2008 This is not a FP situation at any colors. This would be a forcing pass situation if one of you had shown a very strong hand. Nobody has done that here. Partner would bid 4♠ very frequently on 4144 and definitely on 4054; there is no reason to assume 5♥ is going down. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 24, 2008 Report Share Posted June 24, 2008 no Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted June 24, 2008 Report Share Posted June 24, 2008 Now that we are on the topic, how about this one: p - (p) - 1D - (1H)3H - (p) - 5D - (p)p - (5H) - p Yes I know, strange auction but really happened. Is this pass forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted June 24, 2008 Report Share Posted June 24, 2008 certainly sounds forcing on general principles, but it's not like we'll bid 6D, so should be NF. (this was to Han, the other one is clearly NF) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sambolino Posted June 24, 2008 Report Share Posted June 24, 2008 first is clearly nf as it was pointed out; 2nd is nf only because of initial pass imo Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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