pclayton Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 Say pard opens 1N and RHO makes a penalty x. You xx which is ostensibly a single suited runout. RHO now competes with 2♠: 1N - (x) - xx - (p)2♣ (2♠) - ? How would play double and 2N here? What would you bid with x Txxx J9xxx Axx? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 You said "ostensibly". Dos it have other meanings in your system?Anyway to answer the question. X = penalties, 2NT = some 2 suiter and Pass with the given hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 Passing with this hand is really bad imo. I also don't understand why it is a single suited run-out. In fact, I have trouble visualising a single suited run-out that might want to double here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 I suppose x would be one or more of the secondary meanings of XX, whatever they are. If I intended this as a single-suited runout, I suppose I will have to pass now, since I don't have a hand for 3♦, and presumably the only things I can show is that or some secondary meaning of XX. Maybe 2NT as "in fact my single-suiter was one of those two-suiters we cannot show" would be theoretically superior but unless playing with Ken Rexford I wouldn't torture p with such an inference. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 Well, I have never played bridge with Ron but I'm pretty sure that if he pulled the 2NT followed by 3D on me I would read it as a red 2-suiter. I consider this almost "natural" bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 What about passing? It's difficult to know what to do. You were SOS'ing and they have a pparetly saved you, why continue bidding? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 What about passing? It's difficult to know what to do. You were SOS'ing and they have a pparetly saved you, why continue bidding?We ran from 1NT in order to get to a safer part score, not out of fear as such - avoiding nasty accidents such as watching the opponents run an 8 card spade suit against 1NTX. But now, with at least half the deck, and a singleton in their suit, we would like to compete further. Making 3 of a red suit is obviously better than watching them score up 2♠. (I am assuming partner has a strong NT.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 Say pard opens 1N and RHO makes a penalty x. You xx which is ostensibly a single suited runout. RHO now competes with 2♠: 1N - (x) - xx - (p)2♣ (2♠) - ? How would play double and 2N here? What would you bid with x Txxx J9xxx Axx? takeout/2 places/double unless red@imps Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted June 11, 2008 Author Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 I didn't mean ostensibly, but that shouldn't affect your conclusions about the hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 I think I need more info about our methods. But I assume that we would not have redoubled, ostensibly a 1-suiter, with a 3-suiter, nor a 2-suiter.. I assume we can show 2-suiters some other way, and that we treat 3-suiters as 2-suiters, guessing which suit to risk losing (altho showing the lower, in a p/c sequence, will often effectively bring all 3 suits into play). If we can't have a 3-suiter or a 2-suiter... just what is left?? I can see psyching the one suiter runout on some horrible 4333 hand, where our other choices were to psych a 2-suiter or end up in a hopeless 1N xx'd... but such hands always pass 2♠. If we have a 4333 that can double 2♠, we'd be trying to play 1N xx'd. So while the idea of having a penalty double seems unlikely, I can't see any better use for the double, since we have 2N available for takeout, whatever that means. Maybe 2N shows a 6=4 hand of some kind... but why risk ending up in a 4-3 when we are assured of a 6-2 or better in our long suit? So my answer is that double is penalty and 2N seems impossible. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted June 11, 2008 Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 1NT-X-XX as "ostensibly" a one-suited runout means, I presume, a transfer to 2♣ to pass or correct to 2♦. Just as you might bid 2♦ after 1NT-P-2♦ as a transfer to 2♥, planning to pass, with a "one-suiter" with hearts,m but may have this pattern of 5431, so also you could "transfer" to 2♦ via the XX with 5431 pattern. So, I'd expect X to show a heart-based "one-suiter," something like 1453/1435,m with 2NT by Opener declining hearts and asking for the minor, 3♣ by Opener doing the same thing but showing real clubs, 3♦ more dangerous (1426 e.g.). 2NT would look more like 5-4 minors, except that this creates a problem of Opener asking for the longer minor. He must pick one. Actually, Responder could easily have 5-5 minors. He might pick one at the two-level but then suggest both at the three-level if he has to be there anyway. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted June 11, 2008 Author Report Share Posted June 11, 2008 The person that gave me this hand plays xx as any single suited runout. A direct transfer (or stayman) shows constructive values and invites pard to compete. Occasionally, RHO is horsing around with a single-suiter of his own with an entry, so your bidding system shouldn't go to waste here. I have a hard time coming up with a hand that wants to run from 1N and now suddenly wants to smack 2♠. KTxx xx Jxxxx xx? Even thats seems dicey to me. I think double should be 100% takeout and the hand I gave is a good example. After all, this isn't a 2 suiter and bringing in a 5-3 club fit is very attractive. 2N should be 4-5 or 5-4 in the minors probably, although expressing which one is longer is a problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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