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[hv=d=n&s=sa8765h84dk9ct974]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

Playing 2/1, you have the constructive auction (partner is dealer) of:

1 - 1

2 - ?

 

I'm wondering what your style of 2 vs. 3 is here (when holding say, doubleton or Hx in opener's 1st suit and 4card support of 2nd suit) ? Is it usually down to the suit quality of the 2nd suit?

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No. It's purely a matter of strength. With 2=4 in the minors, you bid 3 whenever you have invitational values, pass when you have a bad hand, and give false preference when you're in between.

 

This hand isn't strong enough to bid 3, so you should bid 2.

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hum.. it is very tempting to bid 3 here!!! The major suit holdings are good, the K is golden, we got good club support and if pard makes a delayed spade support, it's great.

 

The hints are all there. I think I'll take the push and bid 3 because pard can still have a good 17 count, opposite which there may be a game on, only reachable if I don't pass now.

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Let's be optimistic and assume an average decent hand for partner where 5 has play...

 

Maybe x-xx-AQxxx-AKxxx? (majors either way)

 

That takes a 2-2 club split. Partner could be better...

 

Maybe x-Ax-Axxxx-AKxxx?

 

With this hand, we may very well be talking overtricks. Best luck, and even on a heart lead we roll in 13 tricks. 2-2 clubs, 3-3 diamonds.

 

Too many good things can happen here, IMO, to pass.

 

The question is whether 2 or 3. I think 4-2 argues 3, but I'm not sure what the right bid is. The folks suggesting 3 so far seem rather reliable, usually, so I think I'm right to bid 3. (Not meaning to disparage anyone bidding 2, though.)

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Guest Jlall
I think 3C is way too much, and pass is way too little. 2D seems just right to me. I mean what hands are you scared of that will miss game after 2D, because I can think of a ton that will bid over 3C when it's wrong.
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No. It's purely a matter of strength. With 2=4 in the minors, you bid 3 whenever you have invitational values, pass when you have a bad hand, and give false preference when you're in between.

 

This hand isn't strong enough to bid 3, so you should bid 2.

I like this. I felt like I would bid 2 at the table, but couldn't put my finger on why.

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I think 3C is way too much, and pass is way too little. 2D seems just right to me. I mean what hands are you scared of that will miss game after 2D, because I can think of a ton that will bid over 3C when it's wrong.

Why can't you just be in a worse contract?

 

I admit I don't feel that strongly for 3 (just for not passing). It just seems like it still finds the games 2 finds, and trades getting too high sometimes with getting to the better suit other times.

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Hi,

 

just one comment:

 

Peoble seem to think, that 2D is stronger than Pass, it is not,

2D is just a mere preference.

What would you bid with 5-5 in the mayors and 2D and 1C?

 

The only advantage of 2D is, that it keeps the bidding open

which may allow opener to bid 2S response.

The probability for a 2S response rises / falls with openers

tendency to raise direct with 3 card support.

 

The downside is, that 2D may well go down while 2C makes,

the probability that we will play a 4-2 fit is low (I would assume

that partner bids 1NT with 4441), but maybe your partner

is a modern theorist, who opens 1D in case he happens to hold

5 clubs and 4 diamonds.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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Marlowe, nobody said 2D shows more than pass.

 

Josh, partner will act over 3C with mild extras and you will often go down in game. Partner will only act over 2D with substantial extras. I think gnasher answered the question in the first response and thought that would be the end of it.

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A couple of additional observations...

 

First, this problem is solved rather well with a pet idea, a 2 opening as intermediate minors (about 13+ to 16; about 5L).

 

Second, I echo the concern raised by jdonn. 2 will get passed a lot for a set when 3 makes. When 3 is raised, will 4 fail? Will 4 fail more than 2?

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Thanks. Coming from an area where pretty much everyone plays new suit is forcing in auctions like 1D-1M-2C, 1C-1H-1S, 1H-1S-2C etc I'm now trying to get around that with the 'NF' style. In those days, we'd have bite our tongues to bid 3C with like a weak hand and 4153/5134 after an auction of 1H-1S-2C- or make a false preference back to opener's suit.

 

So back onto this hand, is the raise of opener's 2nd suit always an invitational style kind of hand that looks like a 10-11? Or is it the kind of hand that has like a good 8ish count or something that will interest opener if he has those invitiational 15/6/7 hands? What if the hand was something like A8765 xxx x KT98 or KT9xx xxx x KQTx ?

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Marlowe, nobody said 2D shows more than pass.

 

<snip>

Hi Han,

 

maybe just semantics, but

gnasher: you bid 3♣ whenever you have invitational values, pass when

you have a bad hand, and give false preference when you're in between

 

reading false preference as 2D, could be read the way I thought,

but as I said, it may just be semantics.

And there are other comments, which could be read in a similar way.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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gnasher:  you bid 3♣ whenever you have invitational values, pass when

you have a bad hand, and give false preference when you're in between

 

reading false preference as 2D, could be read the way I thought,

but as I said, it may just be semantics.

Yes, by "false preference" I meant 2.

 

I think the the upper and lower limits for pass and 2 are about the same, but 2 includes more good hands. With 1-3 or 3-1 in the minors, the lower limit is the same. Likewise with 1-4 or 4-1. The difference is that with 2-4 (or possibly 2-3) and a bad hand you pass 2, but with a reasonable hand you bid 2.

 

All of this assumes that 1D-1M-2C shows five diamonds and four clubs. I've no idea how it works if opener might be 4-5, which is a style that I don't understand at all.

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Easy 2. I haven't got enough for 3 IMO.

 

Might be the wrong contract if partner passes this, but I'm very comfortable if partner can bid one more time - especially 2 is a bid I'd like to hear.

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<!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> ???? </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> IMP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> A8765 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> 84 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> K9 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> T974 </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end -->

 

Playing 2/1, you have the constructive auction (partner is dealer) of:

1 - 1

2 -  ?

 

I'm wondering what your style of 2 vs. 3 is here (when holding say, doubleton or Hx in opener's 1st suit and 4card support of 2nd suit) ? Is it usually down to the suit quality of the 2nd suit?

Great post ty for posting. Given that I do play a style that can have 4d and 5clubs and open on junk, I think this is a really tough hand. x...xxx....AQTx...Axxxx

1) 2D could find us playing in a 4-2 fit

2) Pard will take 3clubs as so much more than this from me...around 12 -13 total points for me.

3) pass could miss an imp game.

 

I guess at imps I will make one more bid with this hand, 2D, but I thought it was a very diffficult choice

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Guest Jlall
Thanks. Coming from an area where pretty much everyone plays new suit is forcing in auctions like 1D-1M-2C, 1C-1H-1S, 1H-1S-2C etc I'm now trying to get around that with the 'NF' style. In those days, we'd have bite our tongues to bid 3C with like a weak hand and 4153/5134 after an auction of 1H-1S-2C- or make a false preference back to opener's suit.

 

So back onto this hand, is the raise of opener's 2nd suit always an invitational style kind of hand that looks like a 10-11? Or is it the kind of hand that has like a good 8ish count or something that will interest opener if he has those invitiational 15/6/7 hands? What if the hand was something like A8765 xxx x KT98 or KT9xx xxx x KQTx ?

I would say 9 is pretty frequent with 3C, and some 8s (especially those with 5 clubs). I mean it's just about judgement, but if your options are passing and bidding 3C (ie you cannot preference) then you would probably strain a lot more to bid 3C than if you had a hand that could preference.

 

For instance with Axxxx xxx x KJxx I would certainly raise but with AJxxx xx Kx xxxx I would just preference. Because I'm not too scared about missing a game if I bid 2D in the second one (partner will usually bid if we have a game), and I prefer to stay low and not get overboard by bidding 3C, however in the first one my options are pass and 3C so I feel that I have to bid 3C since passing could miss a game very easily. I would acknowledge that we could get too high by bidding 3C in the first one though if partner has something like a 15 count or so that has to bid.

 

At what point you have enough to bid 3C is certainly debatable, I just think the original hand is not enough and not even really that close. I find the argument that "we may make 3C and go down in 2D" laughable because that has to be such a small subset of hands (clubs 2 tricks better with partner PASSING) compared to the sets of hands where you get too high by bidding 3C. Maybe people who routinely open 1D and then bid 2C with 4-5 or for ken 3-5 have more of a problem being in an unplayable partscore after bidding 2D.

 

Basically, gnashers original post was 100 % correct.

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[hv=d=n&s=sa8765h84dk9ct974]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

Playing 2/1, you have the constructive auction (partner is dealer) of:

1 - 1

2 - ?

 

I'm wondering what your style of 2 vs. 3 is here (when holding say, doubleton or Hx in opener's 1st suit and 4card support of 2nd suit) ? Is it usually down to the suit quality of the 2nd suit?

I tend to bid 2D here, this is a good 7, and when you find S fit, it certainly worths more than 7. S fit isn't likely, but still possible. also, you like to play 5C if partner can bid 3C over 2D, for example, he may hold x xx AQJxx AKJxx, the chance for 5C is good enough IMO. If he holds x xx AQxxx AKQxx, you really don't want to miss 5C.

3c is an overbid, which is my second choice. A third choice is pass. Still, pass may work

out well sometimes.

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2 but I really don't object to a pass. The false preference is common on this hand type, but the hands where we are making game are few and far between.

That's why I'll just pass as game is unlikely and we may have an 8 card fit but only a 7 card fit.

 

PD may have 3 or possibly 4 noting the opp's silence. Even,if PD has a big hand, the opps may have enough to get to 2 giving us another chance.

 

Passing tells PD I am weak and have 4+. I'll take my chance on missing the occasion game if PD has a good hand with 3 or has 17 or 18 unbalanced HCP not good enough to jump shift forcing to game and some game makes.

 

I don't fault 2 looking for more, but just think more is unlikely. I would bid 2 with just one more useful HCP.

 

.. neilkaz ..

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