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Peer check (over 2D)


Over 2D  

44 members have voted

  1. 1. Over 2D

    • Pass
      13
    • 2 Hearts
      31
    • Dbl
      0


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There's too much disparity between a rather good 6 carder and a mediocre 4 carder and I'd hate to hear a response with this real min.

 

Although we're red/red it is MP's and I'll stick my neck out with 2 and if we go for 500, lets hope the opps have a game. I don't like goign for 200 here X'd or not but this is MP..I'll risk what I consider to be a min 2.

 

If I double, PD will expect a bit more and I fear were often going for 500 in 4x rather than +140 in 3. Other times he may make a penalty pass and opener will be playing for an OT.

 

2 just barely .. neilkaz ..

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The technically correct bid is to pass.

I know I want to bid 2H. I really really do.

But when do you not have enough to overcall?

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There has to be some point below which you just cannot act immediately over a preempt.

 

I pass and hope to get a second chance. If I bid partner will play me for a much better hand.

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Any engineers around that can explain what "technically" means in this context?

Er, nope, not an engineer.

 

It is true that if partner has quite a good hand we could end up in a poor game. But it seems to me that it is more likely that pard has an indifferent 11 or so and maybe something like a 3235 shape and won't bid - so we could be defending a crummy 2D contract when we could have chances for 2H ourselves - so yes I bid and take the blame if we're one off in 4 or whatever might go wrong.

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There are many hands like Ax Kxx xxxx Axxx where partner has no business balancing and yet 4 has good play. There are also many weaker hands where 2 is cold and 2 is also making (give partner same hand without the A). So I feel like I really have to bid 2, even though there are possible misfits where partner bids 3NT and it goes down a bunch. At least the heart spots are good enough that hearts might be a source of tricks.
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I wasn't faced with this but I came across this in analyzing a set of hands for a lesson. At first I thought it was a pass, but then figured it was better to overcall, not only because we have both majors, but because we have the short diamonds. The intermediates don't hurt either.

 

I think its wrong to pass this hand in 3N :)

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A couple of people have hit both sides of one issue that I don't get. How, precisely, does one get to 3NT? I agree with pclayton. There is no auction to 3NT. 3NT might be bid along the way, of course. By partner. He is so cute when he does that.
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Perfect 1 overcall.

I know I've been underutilizing the extra space afforded by conventional treatments of insufficient bids. So does 1 (oops!) 2 show the stronger or weaker hand? If you mistook the 1 by your RHO and jump overcalled that would suggest playing a direct 2 as weak while a corrected 1->2 as sounder. Of course the sound overcall comes up more than the weak one in practice and you don't want the opponents catching on too quickly so it might be right to reverse them on frequency grounds. :P

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A couple of people have hit both sides of one issue that I don't get. How, precisely, does one get to 3NT? I agree with pclayton. There is no auction to 3NT. 3NT might be bid along the way, of course. By partner. He is so cute when he does that.

I've counted the posts that mention 3NT, and there are only two, so I suppose I'm one of the couple of people. I didn't actually say we'd play in 3NT - I'd convert it to 4, but that wouldn't help much opposite some 3244 14-count like Qxx Qx AQxx A10xx.

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A couple of people have hit both sides of one issue that I don't get.  How, precisely, does one get to 3NT?  I agree with pclayton.  There is no auction to 3NT.  3NT might be bid along the way, of course.  By partner.  He is so cute when he does that.

I've counted the posts that mention 3NT, and there are only two, so I suppose I'm one of the couple of people. I didn't actually say we'd play in 3NT - I'd convert it to 4, but that wouldn't help much opposite some 3244 14-count like Qxx Qx AQxx A10xx.

Well, a "couple" is "two," unless you are from Texas.

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Is 2 unconditionally forcing?If not, what is the advancer's minimum requirement to bid on when he has support (say 3 cards ) and when he does not have support?Will he bid 4 card in either case?Or will he assume overcaller doesn't have 4 card because overcaller didn't dbl?
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