Adam1105 Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 [hv=d=s&v=n&n=skqjxxhxdaqxcjxxx&s=sahkqjxxdk109xxcxx]133|200|[/hv] Bidding: S W N E 1H P 1S P2D P 2NT PP P It made 3NT. Is south guilty for not continuing bidding? Need to know. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 2NT in this sequence is invitational only and can be passed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 I would have gone on as South, but that's a judgment call. What is clear is that North's 2NT is a wrong bid if non-forcing; he has an opening hand facing a partner that opened, he cannot make a non-forcing bid until they reach game. Edit: 3NT isn't cold on any layout, either. Give RHO five clubs missing an honor, and you're down 2. You should still be there, but still. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 If you agreed to play responder's 2NT as forcing, South is guilty. But without this agreement 2NT is invitational, so North is guilty. But I think South's hand is good enough to bid on anyway, so South has to take a share of the blame. There looks to be more than 100% to be shared around, so North 100%, South 75%. :blink: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 I'm not as confident as some that South should go on. Give North a maximum 2N of KJxx, xx, xxx, AQJ and even with a club out from Kxxxx 3N is most likely in the toilet. In standard bidding north gets 100% of the blame for failing to make a game-forcing bid with a game-forcing hand. Although South could pull to 3D, that is more a sign of displeasure with NT than a sign of encouragement. I would expect partner, after 1H-1S-2D-2N-3D to pass holding KJxx, xx, xxx, AQJ. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North gets 100% of the blame for failing to make a game-forcing bid with a game-forcing hand. Agree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North gets 100% of the blame for failing to make a game-forcing bid with a game-forcing hand. Agree. Once again common sense prevails !! Hasn't N ever heard of 3♣ 4SF ? and iit a natural suit anyhow ! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North gets 100% of the blame for failing to make a game-forcing bid with a game-forcing hand. Agree. Once again common sense prevails !! Hasn't N ever heard of 3♣ 4SF ? and iit a natural suit anyhow ! Yes, agree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mbodell Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 I'd say the NF 2nt call is a clear mistake by N and worth 100% of the blame. I think south's hand is strong and shapely enough to try 3♦ over the 2nt so I'd give south about 60% of the blame. So that breaks down to a final score of at least 62.5% N and 37.5% S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North failed to show his shape and strength, so he has to take 100% of the blame. North showed 4♠'s and denied 3♥'s, so he must have 6-7 card in the minors, so South can assume there is a ♦ fit and balance in 3♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 Hi, On first sight, I would blame North. A B/I argument involving HCP: North has an opening bid oppossite an opening bid and should force to game. If you claim, North made a well thought of judgment bid,which will keep the partnership out of game, with a deadmin. South hand (I dont know how a dead min. openinglooks like in the partnership), fair enough, ... but he did bid cautiously and should not expect South to bid in a wayto compenate for it. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 Clearly 100% to North and 80% to South. North has a game forcing hand and failed to make a game forcing call. That really ends the discussion. Having said that, South should bid again. So, it looks like this partnership is clicking on all cylinders. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North showed 4♠'s and denied 3♥'s, so he must have 6-7 card in the minors, so South can assume there is a ♦ fit and balance in 3♦. Bleah. First of all, why can't North be 5224? Or 4225? Second of all, is this the hand where you want to be in diamonds across 3 small? Entries are going to be a big problem...you have at most 2 entries, and probably one of those will be killed by the opening lead. You'll probably lose three diamond tricks just because you're forced to lead the damn things from your hand. Reverse the red suits (so you had KQJxx in diamonds and KT9xx in hearts) and I'd bid 3♦. But here, it's very possible that I can run the hearts and never play on diamonds in NT....it wouldn't be shocking if I had 5 hearts, 2 spades and a club for 8 tricks (KTxx Ax xxx QJTx). Tough hand to make 3♦ on. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North's 2NT bid is much more questionable than South's pass of 2NT, although I don't think either player has an automatic decision. Personally, I would insta 3N with North's hand after the 2♦ bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North's 2NT bid is much more questionable than South's pass of 2NT, although I don't think either player has an automatic decision. Personally, I would insta 3N with North's hand after the 2♦ bid. I don't understand why, is partner supposed to pull with 3541? 2551? What's the rush to avoid bidding 3♣ first? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted May 12, 2008 Report Share Posted May 12, 2008 North's 2NT bid is much more questionable than South's pass of 2NT, although I don't think either player has an automatic decision. Personally, I would insta 3N with North's hand after the 2♦ bid. I don't understand why, is partner supposed to pull with 3541? 2551? What's the rush to avoid bidding 3♣ first? Thats fine too. Guess I responded too quickly =) Anyway the main point here is that you should GF with North's hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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