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Hand from the club.


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How is it possible to answer this question without knowing what system you play? 1C as 15+ is not enough.

More details on the system. We open all unbalanced 11 counts and all balanced 12 counts. Responses to major openings are SAYC style, drury is available.

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If 2 on the North hand is permissible, then I can understand how 3 can be nonforcing.

 

Getting to 3 on these cards isn't a disaster. I suspect it is fairly normal.

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If this hand isn't enough then what north hand consistent with 2 followed by 2 would ever accept a 3 invite? Put the Q in a major instead?

I don't consider 3 to be an invite. It just shows a minimum 5-5, which is in fact what South has.

 

There's several ways to bid a stronger hand with South with different forms of Precision, such as 3 the first time if you don't use that as Splinter (ick), or 3 as 4th suit forcing over 2. I don't think it really matters where the Queen is in the North hand. It's just....under 24 hcp, no singleton in the hand with shorter trumps, and no 9+ card fit. At least the way I learned Precision, if you don't have any of those three, you don't go for game.

 

Um, Cherdano, the way I play Precision 2 isn't forcing!

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How can 3 be non-forcing?

How can it be forcing when both players are limited?

North showed a 3-card limit raise, and South make a re-game try with 3.

Oh no, North showed an invitational hand, and South showed an acceptance with 3, offering a choice of games.

Do you play 2 as non-forcing?

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How can 3 be non-forcing?

How can it be forcing when both players are limited?

North showed a 3-card limit raise, and South make a re-game try with 3.

Oh no, North showed an invitational hand, and South showed an acceptance with 3, offering a choice of games.

Do you play 2 as non-forcing?

I think a 3-card limit raise would have been 3 after 2. After 2, his only real options are pass, 2, and 2N. 2N seems unwise given the weakness. 2 keeps the bidding alive and takes a preference to playing the 5-2 versus the 4-3. We don't play 2 as forcing so pass is an option but not the best I think.

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I think a 3-card limit raise would have been 3 after 2.

Why even have a 3 card limit raise bid?

 

If responder has 10 hcp, 2-3 spades, and 5+ clubs, he bids 2 and then signs off in 2 or passes 2. Why admit to the opponents that you actually have a fit?

 

If responder has 12 hcp, 3 spades, and 5+ clubs, he just bids 4 over 1. What are you looking for?

 

If responder has 14+ hcp, 3 spades, and 5+ clubs, now he needs 3 over 2 to show this hand.

 

At any rate, I take 2 to be signoff. God knows he has the right hand for it.

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If 2H showed a minimum (so 11-13) then it makes some sense to play that 3H is NF. So it seems that south has shown a 11-13 count with 5-5 in the majors. Presumably with a very poor hand south would pass 2S so perhaps that south has shown a 13-count 5-5 hand? Hard to fault south then because that's exactly what he has.

 

3H at MPs seems fine. You might make 4, you might go down, it seems like a perfectly reasonable spot and a good auction within the system.

 

While your 2C response is SAYC-like, your follow-ups really aren't (2H NF is very different) so I think you shouldn't describe it as SAYC like. Again, it is not possible to evaluate the auction without knowing the system.

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The result was 3 making 6 for a near bottom. Most of the field was in 4 making. Are they all insane to be in 4 or is there some wisdom in it that most people here seem to be missing? I don't think that 2/1 or SA is any better at sorting these hands out so I think this is more of a judgement issue rather than a systemic issue.
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I would want to force to game as south given my club holding, but it's tricky since I want to show 5-5 but not bypass 3NT. I guess this does depend on methods to a large extent. It's funny since I think bidding 2 instead of 1NT should have helped you get to game when compared to the field.

 

All that said, I realize game is not amazing, but it seems good enough.

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Again, hard to tell without knowing the system more but I'd certainly want to treat the south hand like a maximum, not minimum, opener. I think it is much closer to a 1 opener than to a pass. The control rich 5-5 in the majors 5 LTC hand is just to good to go quietly. If 2 is NF then I think that was a bad bid. If the 2 was F1 and the 3/2 suggests maximum 5-5 then I think that was perfect and it is North's fault for not bidding 4. If South has really just showed a minimum 55 hand then North's pass is good.
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I wonder how the field is consistently getting to game here. I can see the start 1 - 1N (F1) - 2 and N as a tricky call here. 2 is an underbid and 2N is a little weird too. either way, the perfecto 4 seems a long way off.

 

How did you make 6? Did you get the Q lead?

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I wonder how the field is consistently getting to game here. I can see the start 1 - 1N (F1) - 2 and N as a tricky call here. 2 is an underbid and 2N is a little weird too. either way, the perfecto 4 seems a long way off.

 

How did you make 6? Did you get the Q lead?

I got a lead. A and another with west winning. Small club lead east putting in the Q. Take club hook, pitching , trump, ruff , ruff , ruff, pull trump.

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