Free Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 Suppose you hold a hand with following characteristics:- 2-4-5-2 distribution exactly- poor 4 card ♥ (9xxx)- good 5 card ♦ (KQJxx)- enough values to bid 2♦ as F1- EDIT: no GF values What do you bid when the auction starts 1♠ - (2♣) - ??? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 Doesn't it depend on whether I have game forcing values? Just like the choice between 2♣ and 1M if p opens 1♦ and we are not playing MAFIA. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 X, Mayors rule. Of course it helps, if you play a style,where the X showes both suits. Besides, sometimes you get to play 2Cx,which is not possible after a 2D bid. With kind regardsMarlowe PS: I would even doubel with 5432 in hearts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 Dbl. If the hand had like 13+ then I'd start with diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted May 5, 2008 Author Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 For those who wonder: you don't have GF values. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 Without GF values X. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 double if partner doesn't suck, 2♦ at indy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dcvetkov Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 double if partner doesn't suck, 2♦ at indy. Lol I really like this :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted May 5, 2008 Report Share Posted May 5, 2008 Dbl... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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