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1 would be my 4th choice after 1NT, 1, and 1.  I much prefer 1 to promise 4 and if you turn the Q into the T I'd still prefer 1 to 1 even if playing standard 3+ 1 openers.

Im trying to break the 1 habit, it has been called 'strange' among other things in these forums.

 

 

btw I opened 1nt but our team mates got a 1 opening, I'm just wondering why some open these 1.

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I thought this would be unanimous, but since it isn't I will join the crowd that claims this is a 15-17 balanced.

 

Raising 1M to 3M after a 1D opening seems a serious overbid to me, btw, otherwise I had more sympathy for the 1 opening (but still wouldn't consider it myself).

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I thought this would be unanimous, but since it isn't I will join the crowd that claims this is a 15-17 balanced.

 

Raising 1M to 3M after a 1D opening seems a serious overbid to me, btw, otherwise I had more sympathy for the 1 opening (but still wouldn't consider it myself).

Overbid? Opposite most 8 counts you want to be in 4.

For example,

 

JTxx

xx

Kxx

Axxx

 

Kxxx

xxx

KQx

xxx

 

The Kaplan and Rubens evaluator evaluates this hand as 16.2. On the ZAR front, it starts off as 30 ZAR, but if partner responds a major this goes up to 32 ZAR. By both bean-counting fronts it is worth an invitation.

 

Put succinctly: If partner responds in a major, your hand is upgraded. If partner responds in a minor, your hand isn't quite as good. That's why I prefer to open 1 on this one.

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I would bid 1 at MPs and 1NT at IMPs.

^

 

I used to just routinely open 1NT on hands w/ 15 hcp. However, when it goes 1NT p p p (hardly a rare occurrence) dummy will frequently hit with a 4 card major. Opening a minor on a hand like this increases our chances of finding that 4 card fit where we can do a trick better. If responder doesn't have a 4 card major, we likely don't want to be in game even if they have 9 or possibly 10 points.

 

At imps, I don't give a flip about the 20 points extra I might get from 110 over 90 and I'll just stick with the preemptive bid of 1NT.

 

I'm not what you'd call a HUGE believer, its something I've started to lean towards recently and will judge results as they come. However, opening that hand 1 is something I might do now whereas I NEVER would have a year ago. With more than 15 hcp I think I would open 1 NT as rebids become more of a problem.

 

Eric

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I nice flat 15 count. If I open 1NT and PD bids Stayman we are in great shape. If he blasts 3NT he lacks a 4 card major (maybe unless 4333) and the opps know that and may harmlessly lead a major anyhow if we're in trouble.

 

If we are in the slam zone, I've told PD I have a flat 15-17 instantly.

 

If I open 1 and PD responds 1M it seem a bit of a stretch to jump to 3 yet a bit of an underbid to reply with 2M.

 

Opening a 3 card suit of xxx makes me gag so much, that I slightly prefer 1 to 1, but off course, there's always issues when you open a 4cM in a 5cM sys, and if I jump raise 1 to 3 PD may wonder why so many minor suit losers.

 

INT for me.. getting the hand off my chest in one bid.

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If you are looking for a hand where I would open 1 of a minor with a balanced 15-17, here's one:

 

AKxx xx xxx AKQx

 

I think opening 1N is an error with this:

 

1. We should be able to get both suits in.

 

2. I want a club lead.

 

3. NT should be played from pard's side.

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<snip>

 

btw I opened 1nt but our team mates got a 1 opening, I'm just wondering why some open these 1.

Did the other pair play a 15-17 NT?

 

It used to be an old style, which required

you to have at most one unstopped suit

(never played it), but if your HCP power

required for opening 1 NT goes down,

in the past 16-18 was standard, this

requiremen will get harder to fullfill,

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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If you play 15 - 17 NT, then you should open every hand that qualifies with 1NT. Not 1, not 1. 1NT.

 

Why? Because you have no other way to show the hand. You can upgrade very good 17s to 18 but that's basically your only way out.

 

About opening 4=4=3=2 with 1, that is something to be agreed with partner. But even if you do so, only outside of 1NT range!

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If you play 15 - 17 NT, then you should open every hand that qualifies with 1NT. Not 1, not 1. 1NT.

 

Why? Because you have no other way to show the hand. You can upgrade very good 17s to 18 but that's basically your only way out.

 

About opening 4=4=3=2 with 1, that is something to be agreed with partner. But even if you do so, only outside of 1NT range!

I think you are also allowed to intentionally underbid a hand by a point. If partner doesn't have a major, is it the end of the world to show 12-14 with a nonfitting 15 instead of opening it 1NT?

 

This auction can also suck:

 

1NT p 2NT all pass

down 1

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1, and for me, clearcut. This is a hand that needs to be TABLED, not hidden. I open this a forcing club if I get the chance too; the scoring table is set up to find 4-4 major suit fits for a reason.

 

And K, I am now playing a short club opening too these days locally (Ambra based). It's not too bad.

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If you play 15 - 17 NT, then you should open every hand that qualifies with 1NT. Not 1, not 1. 1NT.

 

Why? Because you have no other way to show the hand. You can upgrade very good 17s to 18 but that's basically your only way out.

 

About opening 4=4=3=2 with 1, that is something to be agreed with partner. But even if you do so, only outside of 1NT range!

I think you are also allowed to intentionally underbid a hand by a point. If partner doesn't have a major, is it the end of the world to show 12-14 with a nonfitting 15 instead of opening it 1NT?

 

This auction can also suck:

 

1NT p 2NT all pass

down 1

Downgrading is certainly ok, but the given hand

is certainly not a hand a lot of peoble would

consider suitable for a downgrade.

 

An auction, which sucks as well is

1D - 1NT (1)

??? (2)

 

(1) 6-10

(2) what now? 2NT and -X, because

you happen to catch partner with 6HCP?

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: There was the suggestion, to open 1C with

certain bal. 15-17 hands and 44 in the black suits.

That is fine, ... as long as you dont happen to play

Walsh, not likely if you are a B/I, but at least it

should be noted, this is because of

 

1C - 1D (1)

1S (2) - ....

 

(1) Walsh style

(2) unbal. hand

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If my hand were:

 

AQxx

xxxx

AKQ

xx

 

I could see opening 1 as opposed to 1NT. It is still the same balanced 15-17 point hand with two suits unstopped and 2 four-card majors (even if there is some overlap in those two statements), but at least I am getting partner off to the right lead if the opponents wind up declaring the hand.

 

And I can see the point of opening 1 on the example hand as the best way to get to a major suit. But I am not going to both misdescribe my hand with my opening bid and bid a suit in which I hold 8xx.

 

So, 1NT for me.

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Agree that 1D is more attractive on a 4-4-3-2 pattern when we have a 17-count. There I wouldn't feel bad for rebidding 3M or 2NT.

 

(Josh is going to hate me for saying this)

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