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long diamonds


kgr

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[hv=d=n&s=saxhxxdkqxxxxxcxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

MP's

1-1

1NT-??

You play T-Walsh and bid 1 transfer to or to NT (you often bid 1 if you think NT is better played from other hand).

I guess this is an obvious 3NT at IMP's (??), but how do you bid at MP's?

 

BTW: your other biding agreements over 1NT are :

2 asking. Partner will bid 2 with a minimum

2NT: transfer to . partner will bid 3 if he invites a invite and 3 if he feels his hand is mimum if you happen to have a invite.

Edited by kgr
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I don't think it is such an obvious 3NT call at any form of scoring.

 

How about bidding a natural and invitational 3? Or is that not allowed?

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BTW: your other biding agreements are :

2 asking. Partner will bid 2 with a minimum

2NT: transfer to . partner will bid 3 if he invites a invite and 3 if he feels his hand is mimum if you happen to have a invite.

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