ccw Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 In precision with the standard nebulous 1D, what are useful meanings to assign to opener's jump rebid of 2N after responders 1M? For that matter, does 1D-1N-2N have any meaning? Thanks Collins Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 - Solid diamonds- 6 or 7 diamonds and 3 card support- mini splinter in higher ranking suit (just thought of that one :P)- void splinter (played this for years - never came up) Whatever you choose is fine. I don't know what 1D - 1N - 2N is. I've never bothered to give it a meaning. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 In precision with the standard nebulous 1D, what are useful meanings to assign to opener's jump rebid of 2N after responders 1M? For that matter, does 1D-1N-2N have any meaning? Thanks Collins 1♦ - 1M2NTIs usually used to show some hands like Phil explained. 1♦ - 1NT2NTThis one can be used to show both minors, and is rather preemptive. It takes away both 2M bids from opps, who still might want to balance. 5-3 is enough to have a fit... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 You can multiplex options, I have always done it this way which is relatively simple and seems to work well. 1♦ 1♥2♠ = 5-6 max, or mini splinter for hearts. 2NT to find out. Can also include GF splinters (then a direct splinter would show a void).2NT = 3♦ rebid with 0-2 hearts.3♦ = 3♦ rebid with 3 hearts. 1♦ 1♠2NT = 3♦ rebid with 0-2 spades, or mini splinter for spades. 3♣ to find out. Can also include GF splinters (then a direct splinter would show a void).3♦ = 3♦ rebid with 3 spades. I would use 1♦ 1NT 2NT (and same if a major is opened) as a rebid of 3 of the suit that is good for notrump. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 We play it as max, long suit, singleton (or void) in partner's suit. We haven't discussed it, but we should have 1♦-1M-3♦ as showing tolerence for partner's suit. The logic is that unless we have a ridiculous number of diamonds, if we have shortness in partner's suit and lack 4 cards in the other major, we must have club tolerence. Therefore, we can't afford to bypass 3♣ with shortness in partner's suit. Edit: Dammit, jdonn beat me to it. 1♦-1NT-2NT is going to depend too much on the NT range. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ccw Posted April 21, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 1♦-1NT-2NT is going to depend too much on the NT range.We play 10-12 NT and... 2NT is shows 5-5 or better in the minors (less than opening strength NV)minimal opener Vul. So those hands would not need to be show here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 You can use 1♦ 1M 2NT to show good 6+ ♦ maximum hand and <3 card M (with 1♦ 1M 3♦ showing good 6+ ♦ maximum hand and 3 card M). I don't know about 1♦ 1NT 2NT. Maybe strong hand with 6♦ and 4♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 21, 2008 Report Share Posted April 21, 2008 1♦-P-1NT-P-2NT? An idea: 1♦-P-1NT-P-? 3♣ = both minors, values3♦ = preemptive, nautral2NT = EITHER (1) both minors and preemptive OR (2) diamonds and values, with which you will convert 3♣ to 3♦, or bid again if partner prefers diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Syl20 Posted April 22, 2008 Report Share Posted April 22, 2008 In my system, where 1♦ must be unbalanced: 1♦-1M-2NT is Max unbalanced with 5+♦ and 3 card supports. 1♦-1NT-2NT is Max unbalanced with ♣>♦>=4 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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