han Posted April 16, 2008 Report Share Posted April 16, 2008 Just to clarify what people are calling auto or self splinters; it is a splinter supporting your own suit but obviously partner must bid the suit in response to a transfer or stayman bid first. No that's not , necessary, for example 1D-1H-1NT-4C. Instead of thinking of a splinter as "showing support", you could think of a splinter as "setting trump". 4C in this auction sets hearts as trumps and shows slam interest with club shortness. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 16, 2008 Report Share Posted April 16, 2008 I have no idea what is standard in these sequences, but if I had to guess it would be KC Gerber since 4N is clearly quant. What is strange to me if you play 4♣ as KC that you can splinter in all suits but clubs. There's two sensible solutions: 1. Ace Scientific (aka BUST - Balanced and Unbalanced Slam Tries). This is similar to what Ken suggests: 3OM is an unbalanced slam try with shortage (next step asks), 4♣ is RKC and 4♦ is a balanced slam try. Some modern folks invert 4♣ and 4♦. 2. Transfer Extensions. 1N - 2♦ - 2♥ - 3♦ is a slam try in hearts. I suppose you can play splinters throughout with this mechanism. The nice thing about this sequence is that responder doesn't have to immediately commit with shortage or not, and can just get opener to cue. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 16, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 16, 2008 Just to clarify what people are calling auto or self splinters; it is a splinter supporting your own suit but obviously partner must bid the suit in response to a transfer or stayman bid first. No that's not , necessary, for example 1D-1H-1NT-4C. Instead of thinking of a splinter as "showing support", you could think of a splinter as "setting trump". 4C in this auction sets hearts as trumps and shows slam interest with club shortness. Han, I would mistake this as a strong 6♥/5♣ hand, offering a choice of game. Maybe 1♦-1♥-1nt-3♣ shows that hand Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 17, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 17, 2008 To continue... if 1♦:1♥ 1n:4♣ is a self splinter in ♥'s then 1♦:1♥1nt:2♣*2x :3♣ is gf 6♥/5♣ 1♦:1♥1nt:2♣ is 4sf 1♦:1♥1nt:3♣ would be invitaional 6♥/5♣ ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted April 17, 2008 Report Share Posted April 17, 2008 To continue... if 1♦:1♥ 1n:4♣ is a self splinter in ♥'s then 1♦:1♥1nt:2♣*2x :3♣ is gf 6♥/5♣ 1♦:1♥1nt:2♣ is 4sf 1♦:1♥1nt:3♣ would be invitaional 6♥/5♣ ?A lot depends on agreements (so what else is new?) If you play any form of new minor after a 1N rebid, then it is easier to play with the 3-level meanings. My current approach is that a new suit at the 3-level (1x 1y 1N 3z) is 5-5 or better (note this includes 6-5 hands) game force with little outside the suits: AKJxx AQJxx would be typical. It asks opener to evaluate honours in my suits, and Ace and, to lesser degree, Kings outside. A jump rebid of responder's suit can be usefully played either as invitational or forcing (obviously not as both). I currently play it as forcing, with slam invitational values, a good 6+ suit. This scheme works very well in conjunction with 2 way nmf, since non 'picture bids' go through 2♦ and then show the second suit or rebid the first suit, and this also shows slam interest, but with more scattered values. And al invitational hands go through the 2♣ puppet to 2♦ over the 1N rebid. I don't know what sayc uses, but I would strongly advise using 3 level new suits as forcing. I haven't yet spoken of jumping to 3 of partner's suit over his 1N rebid. This can be played as invitational or as strong... again, if you use 2 way nmf, I would suggest using the 3 level bid as strong... you can always bid 2♣ over 1N, to force 2♦, and then raise partner's suit to the 3-level with all invitational raise hands. Using old fashioned nmf poses slightly different considerations. 1♣ 1♠ 1N 2♦ 2N 3♣... is this forcing in your methods or invitational? If that is forcing, then use the jump over 1N as invitational, and vice versa. Don't worry too much about catering to 6-5 hands... they are very rare and you won't go too far wrong by initially showing 5=5... you can always rebid the 6 card suit later if you have the need and the opportunity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted April 17, 2008 Report Share Posted April 17, 2008 Just to clarify what people are calling auto or self splinters; it is a splinter supporting your own suit but obviously partner must bid the suit in response to a transfer or stayman bid first. I do not distinguish between splinters containing a singleton or void as Harald does. Is this the standard, expert treatment? It's standard in Norway, also in Sweden and Denmark as far as I know. From what I see here and elsewhere, it's non-standard in most (the rest?) of the world. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 19, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 19, 2008 Hi, I am slowly working my way through all of this and I am stuck on one point. I think most casual partners play ‘old-fashioned’ 1way nmf so the question is ‘should 1♣ 1♠ 1N 2♦ 2N 3♣ be forcing or non forcing? I can’t picture a hand strong enough to bid nmf but wanting to play 3♣ over 2nt, so I say it has to be forcing. What do the experts think? Perhaps we should all be playing 2way nmf. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted April 19, 2008 Report Share Posted April 19, 2008 Hi, I am slowly working my way through all of this and I am stuck on one point. I think most casual partners play ‘old-fashioned’ 1way nmf so the question is ‘should 1♣ 1♠ 1N 2♦ 2N 3♣ be forcing or non forcing? I can’t picture a hand strong enough to bid nmf but wanting to play 3♣ over 2nt, so I say it has to be forcing. What do the experts think? Perhaps we should all be playing 2way nmf. This is obviously forcing. With less than invitational strength you'd rebid 2♣, to invite you jump to 3♣ over 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 19, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 19, 2008 Hi, I am slowly working my way through all of this and I am stuck on one point. I think most casual partners play ‘old-fashioned’ 1way nmf so the question is ‘should 1♣ 1♠ 1N 2♦ 2N 3♣ be forcing or non forcing? I can’t picture a hand strong enough to bid nmf but wanting to play 3♣ over 2nt, so I say it has to be forcing. What do the experts think? Perhaps we should all be playing 2way nmf. This is obviously forcing. With less than invitational strength you'd rebid 2♣, to invite you jump to 3♣ over 1NT. Great, I have 1yes vote. btw, precious little is obvious to me in this game :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 20, 2008 Report Share Posted April 20, 2008 Hi, reformating the auction: 1C - 1S1NT - 2D2NT - 3C forcing, partner could raise clubs with inv. hands. If he has an inv. hand, with club support and 5 spades, he should bid 3C, if opener accepts the game try, opener should bid 3S, which would show 3 spades. Simply speaking: If responder makes another bid below game after openers answer to the NMF inquiry, this creates a game force. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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